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ATM · 10% of the exam

Operation of Systems practice questions

10 free Operation of Systems questions for the Airline Transport Pilot Multiengine (ATM) Knowledge Test exam, each with the correct answer and an explanation for every option.

What this domain covers

How transport-category aeroplane systems work and how to manage them: pressurisation, ice protection, engines, flight controls and the automation that ties them together.

Exam weight
10%
On a real exam
≈ 13 questions
In our bank
61 questions

Topics that come up most

  • Pressurisation and cabin altitude control
  • Anti-ice and de-ice systems
  • Turbine engine operation and limits
  • Hydraulic, electrical and fuel systems
  • Flight management systems and autoflight modes

How to study it

For each system, write down its normal operation, the warning that signals a failure and the crew's first action; questions are usually built on that link.

Sample Operation of Systems questions

Try each one before opening the answer. Original questions written to the official exam objectives.

  1. Question 1

    An air data inertial reference unit (ADIRU) combines two functions in one unit. Which pairing correctly matches each function with the kind of data it supplies?

    • AAir data: airspeed, altitude, angle of attack; inertial reference: attitude, heading, position
    • BAir data: attitude, heading, position; inertial reference: airspeed, altitude, angle of attack
    • CAir data: airspeed and altitude; inertial reference: radio altitude and glideslope deviation
    • DAir data: angle of attack and temperature; inertial reference: position updated only by VOR/DME fixes
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Air data: airspeed, altitude, angle of attack; inertial reference: attitude, heading, position

    An ADIRU's air data part supplies airspeed, altitude and angle of attack. Its inertial reference part supplies attitude, heading and position. Both feed the displays, autopilot and flight controls.

    • ACorrect. The air data reference part supplies parameters such as airspeed, altitude and angle of attack. The inertial reference part supplies attitude, heading and position to the displays, autopilot and flight controls.
    • BIncorrect. The functions are swapped. Attitude and position come from the inertial reference part, and airspeed and angle of attack come from the air data part.
    • CIncorrect. Radio altitude comes from the radio altimeter and glideslope deviation comes from the ILS receiver. Neither comes from the inertial reference function.
    • DIncorrect. Inertial reference is self-contained: it gets attitude and position from its own sensors, not from ground-based radio fixes.
  2. Question 2

    During a ground start of a turbine engine, the core accelerates at a normal rate after light-off, but EGT climbs quickly and is about to exceed the AFM starting limit. Which choice correctly identifies the condition and the required action?

    • AHot start, usually from an overly rich fuel/air mixture; cut off fuel to the engine immediately
    • BHung start, caused by too little starter torque; keep the starter engaged until the engine reaches idle
    • CWet start, caused by fuel pooling without ignition; motor the engine to clear fuel, then retry
    • DNormal start transient; continue the start because rising airflow will bring EGT back within limits
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Hot start, usually from an overly rich fuel/air mixture; cut off fuel to the engine immediately

    A hot start is a start with normal rotation in which EGT exceeds its limit, usually because the fuel/air mixture is too rich. The crew must cut off fuel immediately. A hung start (stalled acceleration) and a wet start (no light-off) are different abnormal starts.

    • ACorrect. FAA guidance defines a hot start as a start with normal engine rotation in which exhaust temperature exceeds prescribed limits, usually caused by an excessively rich mixture. Fuel must be shut off at once to avoid turbine damage.
    • BIncorrect. In a hung start the engine lights off but stops accelerating below idle RPM. Here the rotation is normal and the problem is excessive EGT, so this is a hot start, not a hung start.
    • CIncorrect. A wet (no light-off) start means fuel flows but does not ignite, so EGT does not rise. A rapid EGT rise means combustion is occurring and the temperature limit is being approached.
    • DIncorrect. A start where EGT is heading past the AFM limit is abnormal. Continuing risks damage to turbine blades and other hot-section parts, so the start must be aborted.
  3. Question 3

    In a turbofan engine, N1 refers to the speed of the:

    • AFuel pump
    • BHigh-pressure spool
    • CLow-pressure spool
    • DStarter
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C) Low-pressure spool

    • AIncorrect. It's the low-pressure spool.
    • BIncorrect. That's N2.
    • CCorrect. Including the fan.
    • DIncorrect. It's the low-pressure spool.
  4. Question 4

    What is the basic difference between an anti-ice system and a deice system?

    • AAnti-ice keeps ice from forming; deice removes ice that has already built up
    • BAnti-ice removes ice that has built up; deice keeps ice from forming
    • CAnti-ice uses only chemical fluid; deice uses only heated bleed air
    • DAnti-ice is for ground use only; deice is for use in flight
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Anti-ice keeps ice from forming; deice removes ice that has already built up

    Anti-ice systems keep ice from forming, so they are normally turned on before or when entering icing. Deice systems remove ice that has already built up. The difference is purpose, not where the system is used or what powers it.

    • ACorrect. Anti-ice systems, such as heated bleed-air leading edges or freezing-point depressant fluid, keep ice from forming on the surface. Deice systems, such as pneumatic boots, break off ice after it has built up.
    • BIncorrect. This reverses the definitions. Prevention is anti-icing; removing ice that has already formed is deicing.
    • CIncorrect. The difference is purpose, not energy source. Hot bleed air is a common way to anti-ice wing leading edges, and pneumatic boots deice mechanically, without heat.
    • DIncorrect. Both ideas apply on the ground and in flight. Ground crews deice and anti-ice with fluids, and in-flight anti-ice systems protect engine inlets and wings during the flight.
  5. Question 5

    At what cabin altitude does a cabin altitude warning typically sound?

    • ANever in flight
    • BAbout 2,000 feet
    • CAbout 25,000 feet
    • DAbout 10,000 feet
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D) About 10,000 feet

    • AIncorrect. The warning is standard.
    • BIncorrect. That's too low.
    • CIncorrect. That's too high to wait.
    • DCorrect. Crews then don oxygen and act.
  6. Question 6

    What does a power transfer unit (PTU) do?

    • ATransfers fuel between the wing tanks
    • BConverts AC to DC power
    • CMoves hydraulic power between systems
    • DControls cabin pressure
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C) Moves hydraulic power between systems

    • AIncorrect. That's a fuel transfer system.
    • BIncorrect. That's a TRU.
    • CCorrect. It provides backup pressure.
    • DIncorrect. That's the pressurization system.
  7. Question 7

    On a transport-category airplane, what is the primary function of the flight management system (FMS)?

    • AMetering fuel flow and controlling ignition for each engine at the engine level
    • BCombining navigation sensor data with performance calculations to guide lateral and vertical paths
    • CInterrogating nearby transponders and issuing traffic and resolution advisories
    • DComparing a terrain database with radio altitude to issue ground-proximity warnings
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B) Combining navigation sensor data with performance calculations to guide lateral and vertical paths

    An FMS combines inputs from several navigation sensors with performance functions to provide lateral and vertical guidance to the displays and autopilot. Engine control, TCAS and TAWS are separate systems.

    • AIncorrect. Engine-level fuel metering and ignition control are done by the engine fuel control or FADEC. The FMS may send thrust targets for performance management, but it does not control the engine directly.
    • BCorrect. An FMS is an integrated suite of sensors, receivers and computers with a navigation database. It takes inputs such as GPS, DME, VOR and IRU and provides RNAV and performance guidance, including lateral and vertical paths, to the displays and the autoflight system.
    • CIncorrect. This describes the traffic alert and collision avoidance system (TCAS), which is separate from the FMS.
    • DIncorrect. This describes the terrain awareness and warning system (TAWS/EGPWS), not the FMS.
  8. Question 8

    On a transport-category jet, the engine-driven generators produce 115-volt AC. Which component normally supplies the airplane's 28-volt DC buses from that AC power?

    • ATransformer-rectifier unit (TRU)
    • BStatic inverter
    • CConstant-speed drive (CSD)
    • DBus tie breaker
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Transformer-rectifier unit (TRU)

    A transformer-rectifier unit steps AC voltage down and rectifies it to DC, which is how a jet with AC generators powers its DC buses. An inverter does the reverse.

    • ACorrect. A TRU first steps the AC voltage down with a transformer, then rectifies it to DC to feed the DC buses. If the TRUs fail, the airplane can lose DC power except for the battery.
    • BIncorrect. A static inverter works in the opposite direction. It converts DC, usually from the battery, into AC so that essential AC instruments keep working when the generators are lost.
    • CIncorrect. A CSD keeps the generator turning at a constant speed so the AC output stays at a constant frequency. It produces no DC.
    • DIncorrect. A bus tie breaker connects or isolates electrical buses so that one source can power another bus. It does not convert AC to DC.
  9. Question 9

    What do thrust reverser interlocks do?

    • ALock the engines at full thrust
    • BPrevent deploying reversers in flight or at unsafe times
    • CDeploy reversers automatically at cruise altitude
    • DControl the fuel flow
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B) Prevent deploying reversers in flight or at unsafe times

    • AIncorrect. They limit reverser use.
    • BCorrect. Air/ground logic is used.
    • CIncorrect. That's prevented.
    • DIncorrect. They control reverser deployment.
  10. Question 10

    What is the main reason transport-category airplanes are designed with two or more independent hydraulic systems?

    • ATo let one system fail while critical functions such as the flight controls stay powered
    • BTo raise the pressure at each actuator by combining the pump outputs in series
    • CTo let fluid flow freely between systems so any one reservoir can refill the others
    • DTo remove the need for a separate emergency means of extending the landing gear
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) To let one system fail while critical functions such as the flight controls stay powered

    Multiple independent hydraulic systems provide redundancy, so critical functions such as the flight controls stay powered after one system fails. The systems are deliberately isolated from each other.

    • ACorrect. FAA system-safety guidance gives two or more hydraulic systems as an example of redundancy, meaning more than one independent way to perform a function, so that function continues after a failure.
    • BIncorrect. The systems are kept separate and independent. Their pump outputs are not combined in series to raise actuator pressure.
    • CIncorrect. Redundant systems are deliberately isolated so that one leak or failure does not drain or disable the others. Free transfer of fluid would defeat that purpose.
    • DIncorrect. Transport airplanes still need an emergency means of extending the landing gear if any single hydraulic, electric or equivalent energy source fails.

Operation of Systems: FAQs

How much of the ATM exam is Operation of Systems?

Operation of Systems is 10% of the ATM exam by the official exam guide's weighting, which on a 125-question form works out to roughly 13 questions. The real exam's exact split varies by form.

What does the Operation of Systems domain cover?

How transport-category aeroplane systems work and how to manage them: pressurisation, ice protection, engines, flight controls and the automation that ties them together.

How should I study Operation of Systems for ATM?

For each system, write down its normal operation, the warning that signals a failure and the crew's first action; questions are usually built on that link.

Where can I practise more Operation of Systems questions?

This page has 10 free Operation of Systems questions with answers. The ExamWize ATM question bank has 61 questions in this domain. Every practice exam result breaks your score down by domain, and Review Mode re-drills the questions you missed.

Get Operation of Systems exam-ready

The full ATM bank has 61 Operation of Systems questions. Timed practice exams match the real exam's length and domain weights, every result shows your score per domain, and Review Mode re-drills the questions you missed.

Not affiliated with FAA; questions are original, written from the official exam outline, and never copied from the real exam.