Instrument Procedures practice questions

Answer: A) Established on a published segment

• ACorrect. 14 CFR 91.175(i).
• BIncorrect. Until established on a published segment.
• CIncorrect. Until established on a published segment.
• DIncorrect. Until established on a published segment.

Answer: B) Objects in them can reflect or block the signal and cause erroneous ILS indications

ILS critical areas are protected because aircraft or vehicles in them can cause multipath interference or block the localizer or glideslope signal, giving erroneous indications. ATC protects them when the ceiling is below 800 ft or visibility is below 2 miles and an arrival is inside the OM or equivalent fix.

• AIncorrect. Critical area protection is about the integrity of the ILS signal, not wake turbulence from aircraft on the ground.
• BCorrect. Aircraft, vehicles and other obstructions in the localizer or glideslope critical area can cause multipath interference or block the signal. ATC protects these areas when the ceiling is below 800 ft or visibility is below 2 miles and an arriving aircraft is inside the OM or the fix used instead of it.
• CIncorrect. The concern is distortion of the electronic localizer and glideslope signals, not the visual view of the approach lights.
• DIncorrect. The runway safety area is a separate airport design concept. ILS critical areas are defined around the localizer and glideslope antennas to protect signal quality.

Answer: A) A DH below 50 feet or no DH, with RVR down to not less than 150 feet

Category IIIb operations use a DH below 50 ft or no DH, with RVR as low as 150 ft. CAT I uses a 200-ft DH, CAT II a DH of at least 100 ft with 1,200 RVR, and CAT IIIc has no DH and no RVR limit.

• ACorrect. FAA guidance defines Category IIIb as a DH lower than 50 ft or no DH, with RVR minimums that may go as low as 150 ft.
• BIncorrect. These are Category I minimums: DH of 200 ft and RVR 2,400 ft, or 1,800 ft with touchdown zone and centerline lighting.
• CIncorrect. This describes Category II, which uses a DH of at least 100 ft and RVR of at least 1,200 ft.
• DIncorrect. Having no DH and no RVR limit at all defines Category IIIc, not IIIb. Category IIIb still has a minimum RVR of 150 ft.

Answer: B) 230 KIAS

• AIncorrect. That's at or below 6,000 ft.
• BCorrect. 200 at or below 6,000; 265 above 14,000.
• CIncorrect. That's above 14,000 ft.
• DIncorrect. That's below 10,000 ft generally.

Answer: D) It must be specifically requested by the pilot

A contact approach must be requested by the pilot, because ATC cannot initiate it. It also requires at least 1 SM reported ground visibility and a published, functioning standard or special IAP at the destination, and the pilot is responsible for obstruction clearance.

• AIncorrect. A contact approach requires reported ground visibility of at least 1 statute mile. The pilot must also stay clear of clouds with at least 1 statute mile of flight visibility.
• BIncorrect. That describes a visual approach, which ATC can initiate. ATC may not initiate a contact approach; it is issued only when the pilot asks for it.
• CIncorrect. A standard or special instrument approach procedure must be published and functioning for the destination airport. The contact approach is flown in place of that procedure.
• DCorrect. ATC issues a contact approach clearance only when the pilot requests it. By making the request, the pilot indicates the flight is clear of clouds with at least 1 SM flight visibility and expects to reach the airport in those conditions.

Answer: A) Decision altitude

• ACorrect. With vertical guidance.
• BIncorrect. LNAV uses MDA.
• CIncorrect. It's a DA.
• DIncorrect. It's a DA.

Answer: C) Climbing turn toward the runway

• AIncorrect. Turn toward the landing runway.
• BIncorrect. Climb toward the landing runway.
• CCorrect. Then follow the missed approach.
• DIncorrect. Climb toward the landing runway.

Answer: B) 1,200 ft away

• AIncorrect. It's 1,200 ft or less.
• BCorrect. Per the AIM.
• CIncorrect. It's 1,200 ft or less.
• DIncorrect. It's 1,200 ft or less.

Answer: B) 3 minutes

• AIncorrect. Start within 3 minutes.
• BCorrect. Per the AIM.
• CIncorrect. Start within 3 minutes.
• DIncorrect. Start within 3 minutes.

Answer: A) Designated low-visibility taxi routes with added guidance and control of aircraft and vehicles

An LVO/SMGCS plan lets surface operations continue below RVR 1,200 ft. It does this through designated taxi routes, charts, visual aids and tighter control of aircraft and vehicles. It does not change takeoff or approach minimums.

• ACorrect. AC 120-57C describes LVO/SMGCS as the guidance and control or regulation of aircraft, ground vehicles and personnel on the movement area for taxi operations below RVR 1,200 ft. This includes low-visibility taxi routes, charts and visual aids.
• BIncorrect. An operator's takeoff minimums come from its operations specifications. The airport's LVO/SMGCS plan covers surface movement and does not grant lower takeoff minimums.
• CIncorrect. CAT II/III authority depends on approvals for the aircraft, crew and operator. An airport's LVO/SMGCS plan does not grant approach authorization.
• DIncorrect. The purpose of LVO/SMGCS is to allow safe taxi operations to continue below RVR 1,200 ft. AC 120-57C sets out procedures for visibility levels down to and below RVR 300 ft.