ATM · 4% of the exam
Emergency and Multiengine Operations practice questions
10 free Emergency and Multiengine Operations questions for the Airline Transport Pilot Multiengine (ATM) Knowledge Test exam, each with the correct answer and an explanation for every option.
What this domain covers
The smallest domain in our breakdown: handling abnormal and emergency situations, with a focus on engine failure and control in multiengine aeroplanes.
- Exam weight
- 4%
- On a real exam
- ≈ 5 questions
- In our bank
- 23 questions
Topics that come up most
- Engine failure after V1 and continued takeoff
- Rejected takeoff decisions
- Vmc and factors that affect it
- Driftdown and single-engine performance
- Rapid decompression and emergency descent
How to study it
Learn how each factor such as weight, CG, bank and power raises or lowers Vmc; it is a short list that questions test from several directions.
Sample Emergency and Multiengine Operations questions
Try each one before opening the answer. Original questions written to the official exam objectives.
Question 1
After a rapid decompression, the flight crew's first action is to:
- AClimb to clear weather
- BCall the dispatcher
- CCheck the cabin
- DDon oxygen masks
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D) Don oxygen masks
- AIncorrect. Oxygen first.
- BIncorrect. Oxygen first.
- CIncorrect. Oxygen first.
- DCorrect. Then begin an emergency descent.
Question 2
In cruise, a twin-jet crew notices that fuel used doesn't match fuel remaining and that a growing imbalance is building on the right side. They suspect a fuel leak from the right engine. Which action do fuel leak procedures typically caution the crew not to take?
- AOpening the crossfeed valve to correct the fuel imbalance
- BShutting down the engine identified as the source of the leak
- CComparing fuel used against fuel remaining to confirm a leak
- DPlanning a diversion to the nearest suitable airport
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A) Opening the crossfeed valve to correct the fuel imbalance
With a suspected engine fuel leak, crews keep the crossfeed closed (and shut down the leaking engine if it is identified), because crossfeeding can send fuel from the good tanks out through the leak.
- ACorrect. Opening the crossfeed can feed the leak with fuel from the other wing's tanks, which would otherwise stay isolated. In the Air Transat A330 event, crossfeeding drained fuel from the good tank through the leaking engine.
- BIncorrect. When the leak is traced to an engine, the fuel leak procedure calls for shutting that engine down to stop the fuel loss.
- CIncorrect. Cross-checking fuel used against fuel on board is the main way crews detect and confirm a leak, so procedures encourage it.
- DIncorrect. A confirmed fuel leak threatens the fuel reserves, so diverting to land at the nearest suitable airport is an appropriate response.
Question 3
VMC increases when the CG moves:
- AAft
- BForward
- CLaterally only
- DNowhere; it's fixed
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A) Aft
- ACorrect. The rudder's moment arm shortens.
- BIncorrect. Forward CG lowers VMC.
- CIncorrect. Aft CG raises VMC.
- DIncorrect. It varies with CG.
Question 4
After an airplane comes to a stop following an emergency landing, what is the flight crew's decision to order an emergency evacuation fundamentally based on?
- AWhether airport rescue and firefighting crews have arrived on scene
- BWhether every emergency exit on the airplane is usable
- CWhether staying aboard poses a greater hazard than the injury risk of evacuating
- DWhether the airplane stopped on a runway rather than a taxiway or off the pavement
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C) Whether staying aboard poses a greater hazard than the injury risk of evacuating
An evacuation decision compares the danger of staying aboard (fire, smoke, structural damage) with the injury risk of an emergency evacuation itself. The certificate holder assigns the crew's evacuation functions under 14 CFR 121.397.
- AIncorrect. ARFF information is helpful, but a fire or other immediate hazard may call for evacuating before ARFF arrives. Waiting for them is not the basis of the decision.
- BIncorrect. Exit availability affects how the evacuation is carried out, for example by redirecting passengers away from blocked exits. An evacuation can still be ordered when some exits are unusable.
- CCorrect. Slide evacuations themselves cause injuries. The crew orders one when conditions such as fire, smoke or structural damage make staying aboard more dangerous than leaving.
- DIncorrect. Where the airplane stopped does not decide whether evacuation is needed. The hazard to the occupants does.
Question 5
If an engine fails after V1, what speed is flown in the initial climb?
- AVREF
- BAt least V2
- CVMO
- DVS1
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B) At least V2
- AIncorrect. That's an approach speed.
- BCorrect. It provides the required climb gradient.
- CIncorrect. That's a maximum speed.
- DIncorrect. That's a stall speed.
Question 6
Smoke appears on the flight deck during cruise. According to FAA in-flight fire guidance, what should the flight crew do first?
- ARun the smoke-elimination checklist first, then put on masks once it is done
- BFind the source and isolate it, then put on masks only if the smoke gets worse
- CPut on oxygen masks at 100% and smoke goggles, then establish crew communication
- DStart an emergency descent at once, then put on masks after leveling off
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C) Put on oxygen masks at 100% and smoke goggles, then establish crew communication
At the first sign of flight deck smoke or fumes, crews put on oxygen masks (100%) and smoke goggles and establish communication. Only then do they run the smoke/fire checklist.
- AIncorrect. FAA guidance says masks and goggles go on before any abnormal or emergency procedure for eliminating smoke or fumes.
- BIncorrect. Waiting exposes the crew to incapacitating smoke and fumes. Protection comes first, at the first sign of smoke.
- CCorrect. FAA guidance says the first step is to put on oxygen masks with the regulator at 100% and smoke goggles, then establish flight deck communication before working the checklist.
- DIncorrect. A diversion or descent may follow, but protecting the crew with masks and goggles comes before any other action.
Question 7
An engine fire occurs after V1. What does the crew normally do?
- AContinue, then handle the fire once safely airborne
- BReject the takeoff immediately
- CTurn back to the departure runway at once at low altitude
- DShut down both engines
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A) Continue, then handle the fire once safely airborne
- ACorrect. Stopping after V1 risks overrunning.
- BIncorrect. Rejecting after V1 may not stop on the runway.
- CIncorrect. A climb to safe altitude comes first.
- DIncorrect. Only the affected engine is shut down.
Question 8
A transport-category airplane has just been stopped after a rejected takeoff near V1 at a high gross weight. What is the most appropriate crew action?
- ATaxi clear promptly to the ramp so airflow while moving can begin cooling the brakes
- BAssess brake temperatures and fire indications, and decide whether evacuation is needed
- CBegin a second takeoff once the cause is fixed, because brake energy limits apply to landings
- DDiscount brake heat, since the fire and fuse-plug risk peaks during the stop itself
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B) Assess brake temperatures and fire indications, and decide whether evacuation is needed
After a high-energy rejected takeoff, brake heat keeps moving into the wheels after the stop and can cause fires or fuse-plug tire deflation. The crew should assess brake temperatures and fire indications and decide whether to evacuate before moving the airplane.
- AIncorrect. Taxiing needs more braking, which adds heat to brakes already near their energy limit. Fuse plugs may release or a fire may start while the airplane is moving or parked near people.
- BCorrect. A high-energy stop can lead to wheel/brake fires or fuse-plug tire deflation in the minutes after stopping. The crew should check brake heat and fire indications, coordinate with ARFF, and decide whether to evacuate.
- CIncorrect. Accelerate-stop brake energy limits apply to takeoff. Hot brakes may not be able to absorb a second rejected takeoff, so the required cooling time must pass first.
- DIncorrect. Brake heat moves into the wheels and tires after the stop. That is why 14 CFR 25.735(g) evaluates fire hazards for at least 5 minutes after stopping, and fuse plugs often release some time later.
Question 9
In a wind shear escape maneuver, the crew should:
- AApply max thrust and pitch up
- BRetract flaps and gear at once
- CLower the nose to gain speed
- DReduce thrust to idle
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A) Apply max thrust and pitch up
- ACorrect. Without changing configuration.
- BIncorrect. Keep the configuration.
- CIncorrect. Pitch up per guidance.
- DIncorrect. Use maximum thrust.
Question 10
At night in IMC, a turbojet crew receives an EGPWS "PULL UP" warning during descent. What is the generally recommended response?
- AApply maximum thrust, roll wings level, and pitch to the escape attitude
- BTurn toward a clear area on the terrain display while holding altitude
- CConfirm the threat on the terrain display before beginning any climb
- DSelect a higher vertical speed on the autopilot and keep current thrust
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A) Apply maximum thrust, roll wings level, and pitch to the escape attitude
An EGPWS "PULL UP" warning calls for an immediate vertical escape maneuver: maximum thrust, wings level, and pitch to the escape attitude, continued until the alerts stop. Turns are generally limited to VMC.
- ACorrect. The terrain escape maneuver is immediate: maximum thrust, autopilot off, wings level, and pitch up toward the escape attitude while respecting stick shaker. The climb continues until the alerts stop.
- BIncorrect. In IMC, FAA guidance recommends vertical escape maneuvers only. A level turn based on the display doesn't ensure terrain clearance.
- CIncorrect. A warning calls for an immediate response. Delaying to check the display uses up the little time available to clear the terrain.
- DIncorrect. The escape maneuver calls for disconnecting the autopilot and applying maximum thrust. A modest autopilot climb at current thrust may not clear the terrain.
Emergency and Multiengine Operations: FAQs
How much of the ATM exam is Emergency and Multiengine Operations?
Emergency and Multiengine Operations is 4% of the ATM exam by the official exam guide's weighting, which on a 125-question form works out to roughly 5 questions. The real exam's exact split varies by form.
What does the Emergency and Multiengine Operations domain cover?
The smallest domain in our breakdown: handling abnormal and emergency situations, with a focus on engine failure and control in multiengine aeroplanes.
How should I study Emergency and Multiengine Operations for ATM?
Learn how each factor such as weight, CG, bank and power raises or lowers Vmc; it is a short list that questions test from several directions.
Where can I practise more Emergency and Multiengine Operations questions?
This page has 10 free Emergency and Multiengine Operations questions with answers. The ExamWize ATM question bank has 23 questions in this domain. Every practice exam result breaks your score down by domain, and Review Mode re-drills the questions you missed.
Other ATM topics
- Code of Federal Regulations18% of the exam
- Weather Information15% of the exam
- High-Altitude Aerodynamics12% of the exam
- Air Carrier Operations12% of the exam
- Human Factors8% of the exam
- Operation of Systems10% of the exam
- Performance and Limitations12% of the exam
- Instrument Procedures9% of the exam
Also: 15 free questions across all topics, the ATM cheat sheet and the study guide.
Get Emergency and Multiengine Operations exam-ready
The full ATM bank has 23 Emergency and Multiengine Operations questions. Timed practice exams match the real exam's length and domain weights, every result shows your score per domain, and Review Mode re-drills the questions you missed.
Not affiliated with FAA; questions are original, written from the official exam outline, and never copied from the real exam.