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ATP Multiengine (ATM) practice questions with answers

15 free practice questions for the Airline Transport Pilot Multiengine (ATM) Knowledge Test, spread across the exam's topics. Try each one, then open the answer to see why every option is right or wrong.

  1. Question 1 · Code of Federal Regulations

    During lost communications, the altitude to fly is the highest of the assigned, expected and:

    • ACruise altitude in the TAF
    • BMEA
    • CMDA for the destination
    • DPattern altitude
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B) MEA

    • AIncorrect. It's assigned, MEA or expected.
    • BCorrect. For each route segment.
    • CIncorrect. It's assigned, MEA or expected.
    • DIncorrect. It's assigned, MEA or expected.
  2. Question 2 · Code of Federal Regulations

    Under Part 117, what is the maximum flight duty period in any 672 consecutive hours?

    • A1,000 hours
    • B60 hours
    • C100 hours
    • D190 hours
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D) 190 hours

    • AIncorrect. That's an annual flight-time limit.
    • BIncorrect. That's the 168-hour limit.
    • CIncorrect. That's a flight-time limit.
    • DCorrect. A 60-hour limit applies per 168 hours.
  3. Question 3 · Code of Federal Regulations

    For a Part 121 operator, what determines the minimum altitudes at which the autopilot may be used during takeoff, en route, and approach?

    • A14 CFR 121.579, using the AFM altitude-loss figures and any altitudes set by the Administrator
    • BThe minimums block of each instrument approach chart, which lists an autopilot disconnect height
    • CThe Minimum Equipment List, which sets autopilot use heights for each dispatch configuration
    • DThe Aeronautical Information Manual, which publishes standard autopilot heights for all transport airplanes
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) 14 CFR 121.579, using the AFM altitude-loss figures and any altitudes set by the Administrator

    14 CFR 121.579 sets autopilot minimum use altitudes for each phase of flight. Each altitude is the higher of a fixed figure, a multiple of the AFM altitude loss, or a value the Administrator specifies.

    • ACorrect. Section 121.579 sets the minimum use altitudes by phase of flight. The values come from fixed figures (such as 500 feet), multiples of the altitude loss given in the AFM, or altitudes specified by the Administrator, whichever is higher.
    • BIncorrect. Approach charts give DA/DH or MDA, not autopilot limits. Section 121.579(d) only uses DA(H) or MDA as a reference point; the limit itself comes from the regulation and the AFM.
    • CIncorrect. The MEL covers dispatch with inoperative equipment. It doesn't set autopilot minimum use altitudes for normal operations.
    • DIncorrect. The AIM is guidance, not regulation. For Part 121 operators, the limits come from 121.579 together with AFM data.
  4. Question 4 · Weather Information

    Why is a volcanic ash cloud especially hazardous to aircraft at night?

    • AThe ash settles at low altitudes after dark, right where aircraft are departing and arriving
    • BWeather radar shows the ash as heavy precipitation, so crews mistake it for a thunderstorm
    • CThe cloud can't be seen in darkness, and airborne radar doesn't normally detect it
    • DCooler night air makes the ash melt more readily inside the engine's hot section
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C) The cloud can't be seen in darkness, and airborne radar doesn't normally detect it

    Volcanic ash clouds may be invisible at night or in IMC, and radar does not normally detect them, so crews can enter one without warning. Ash can cause engine flameout and other damage.

    • AIncorrect. Ash plumes can rise to and drift at jet cruise altitudes. Nothing confines them to low altitudes at night, and many encounters have happened at cruise.
    • BIncorrect. The AIM says airborne and ATC radar do not normally detect volcanic ash clouds, so the ash does not show up as precipitation returns.
    • CCorrect. The AIM notes that the ash plume may not be visible, especially at night or in IMC, and that radar does not normally detect it. Crews can fly into it without warning.
    • DIncorrect. Ash melts because of the high temperatures in the engine's hot section, whatever the outside air temperature. Night conditions make the ash harder to detect, not more likely to melt.
  5. Question 5 · Weather Information

    What is the Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ)?

    • AA polar region of stable, dry air
    • BA band of rising air and storms near the equator
    • CA layer of calm, dry air above the tropopause at the poles
    • DA zone of permanent fog over oceans
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B) A band of rising air and storms near the equator

    • AIncorrect. The ITCZ is equatorial.
    • BCorrect. Trade winds converge there.
    • CIncorrect. It's in the troposphere.
    • DIncorrect. It's a convergence zone with convection.
  6. Question 6 · High-Altitude Aerodynamics

    Some jet fuselages are narrowed ("waisted") where the wing joins. Under the area rule, what type of drag does this design reduce?

    • AInduced drag produced by the wingtip vortices
    • BSkin-friction drag by keeping the boundary layer laminar
    • CForm drag from flow separation at high angles of attack
    • DWave drag from shock waves forming near Mach 1
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D) Wave drag from shock waves forming near Mach 1

    The area rule shapes the airplane so its total cross-sectional area changes smoothly along its length. This reduces wave drag from shock waves at transonic speeds.

    • AIncorrect. Induced drag comes from making lift and is reduced by higher aspect ratio and winglets. Fuselage shaping does not target it.
    • BIncorrect. Skin-friction drag is reduced by laminar-flow airfoils and smooth surfaces. The area rule is about the overall cross-sectional area distribution, not boundary-layer state.
    • CIncorrect. Separation drag at high angle of attack is a low-speed, near-stall problem. It is addressed by wing design and high-lift devices, not by area ruling.
    • DCorrect. The area rule calls for the total cross-sectional area to change smoothly from nose to tail. Narrowing the fuselage where the wing adds area avoids sudden jumps in area, which reduces shock-induced wave drag in the transonic range.
  7. Question 7 · High-Altitude Aerodynamics

    For a transport-category jet at cruise, how does optimum altitude differ from maximum altitude?

    • AOptimum altitude gives the best fuel or cost efficiency at the current weight; maximum altitude is the highest level allowed by certification, thrust, or buffet margin
    • BOptimum altitude is the highest level that keeps a 1.3 g buffet margin; maximum altitude is the certified ceiling shown in the flight manual
    • COptimum altitude is a fixed value for each airplane model, while maximum altitude decreases steadily as the airplane burns fuel during cruise
    • DMaximum altitude is the most fuel-efficient level for the current weight; optimum altitude is the highest level that still leaves a full buffet margin
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Optimum altitude gives the best fuel or cost efficiency at the current weight; maximum altitude is the highest level allowed by certification, thrust, or buffet margin

    Optimum altitude is the most efficient cruise level for the current weight. Maximum altitude is the highest level the airplane may use, limited by certification/structure, available thrust or the required buffet (maneuver) margin, and it is usually above optimum.

    • ACorrect. Optimum altitude is the most economical level for the current weight and rises as fuel burns off. Maximum altitude is the lowest of three limits: the certified (structural/pressurization) ceiling, the thrust-limited altitude, and the altitude that still leaves the required maneuver/buffet margin.
    • BIncorrect. Buffet margin is one of the limits on maximum altitude. Optimum altitude is based on efficiency (fuel or cost), not on buffet margin. Also, the certified ceiling is only one of several limits on maximum altitude.
    • CIncorrect. Both change with weight. As fuel burns off and weight drops, optimum altitude and the thrust- and buffet-limited maximum altitude both rise.
    • DIncorrect. This swaps the two terms. Efficiency defines optimum altitude, and performance and certification limits define maximum altitude.
  8. Question 8 · Air Carrier Operations

    For a two-engine airplane, how far from the departure airport may a takeoff alternate be?

    • AAny distance, if weather is good
    • BWithin 2 hours at normal cruise
    • CWithin 30 minutes at normal two-engine cruise speed
    • DWithin 1 hour at one-engine-out cruise
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D) Within 1 hour at one-engine-out cruise

    • AIncorrect. A distance limit applies.
    • BIncorrect. That's for three- or four-engine airplanes.
    • CIncorrect. That isn't the rule.
    • DCorrect. Three- and four-engine limits are longer.
  9. Question 9 · Air Carrier Operations

    Within how long must a full evacuation demonstration show that all occupants can leave?

    • A30 seconds
    • B5 minutes
    • C90 seconds
    • D3 minutes
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C) 90 seconds

    • AIncorrect. The standard is 90 seconds.
    • BIncorrect. The standard is 90 seconds.
    • CCorrect. Half of the exits are typically used.
    • DIncorrect. The standard is 90 seconds.
  10. Question 10 · Human Factors

    What illusion can strong acceleration during a go-around create?

    • AA false sense of pitching up
    • BA false sense of rolling right
    • CA false sense of descending
    • DNo illusion at all
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) A false sense of pitching up

    • ACorrect. Pilots may push the nose down.
    • BIncorrect. That isn't the typical illusion.
    • CIncorrect. Acceleration feels like pitching up.
    • DIncorrect. Acceleration can mislead the inner ear.
  11. Question 11 · Operation of Systems

    Leading-edge slats mainly:

    • AAct as speed brakes in descent
    • BReduce cruise drag
    • CRaise the critical AOA
    • DStore fuel
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C) Raise the critical AOA

    • AIncorrect. They raise the critical AOA.
    • BIncorrect. They raise the critical AOA.
    • CCorrect. Increasing maximum lift.
    • DIncorrect. They raise the critical AOA.
  12. Question 12 · Performance and Limitations

    How does a downhill runway slope affect takeoff?

    • AIt only affects landing
    • BIt lengthens the takeoff distance
    • CIt has no effect
    • DIt shortens the takeoff distance
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D) It shortens the takeoff distance

    • AIncorrect. It affects takeoff too.
    • BIncorrect. Upslope lengthens it.
    • CIncorrect. Slope affects distance.
    • DCorrect. Gravity helps acceleration.
  13. Question 13 · Performance and Limitations

    For a transport-category airplane, a balanced field length condition exists when, for the selected V1:

    • AThe all-engine takeoff distance equals the runway length available
    • BThe engine-out accelerate-go distance equals the accelerate-stop distance
    • CThe accelerate-stop distance equals 115 percent of the all-engine takeoff distance
    • DThe accelerate-stop distance equals the landing distance required at maximum landing weight
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B) The engine-out accelerate-go distance equals the accelerate-stop distance

    The field length is balanced when, at the chosen V1, the engine-out accelerate-go distance equals the accelerate-stop distance.

    • AIncorrect. That describes a field-length-limited takeoff. It does not compare engine-out continue and stop distances.
    • BCorrect. When the distance to continue to 35 feet after an engine failure equals the distance to abort and stop, the field length is balanced at that V1.
    • CIncorrect. The 115 percent factor applies to the all-engine takeoff distance (and to landing runway on wet runways). It does not define a balanced field.
    • DIncorrect. Landing distance is a separate performance limit. The balanced field compares the two takeoff outcomes after an engine failure at V1.
  14. Question 14 · Instrument Procedures

    What is the standard missed approach climb gradient unless otherwise published?

    • A500 feet per NM
    • B100 feet per NM
    • C200 feet per NM
    • D300 feet per NM
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C) 200 feet per NM

    • AIncorrect. That's higher than the standard.
    • BIncorrect. That's below the standard.
    • CCorrect. Higher gradients are published when needed.
    • DIncorrect. The standard is 200.
  15. Question 15 · Emergency and Multiengine Operations

    A turbine-powered transport category airplane loses all engines to flameout at cruise. Under 14 CFR 25.903(e), within what limits must each engine be shown capable of an in-flight restart?

    • AWithin an altitude and airspeed envelope established specifically for in-flight restarts
    • BAnywhere within the normal operating envelope, from VMO/MMO up to the maximum operating altitude
    • COnly when APU bleed air is available, so that every restart attempt can be starter-assisted
    • DOnly below 10,000 feet MSL, where the air is dense enough for a reliable windmilling relight
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Within an altitude and airspeed envelope established specifically for in-flight restarts

    14 CFR 25.903(e) requires an altitude and airspeed envelope for in-flight engine restarting, and each engine must be able to restart within it. For turbine airplanes, an independent ignition power source is required if windmilling engines cannot supply enough electrical power for ignition.

    • ACorrect. 25.903(e)(2) requires an altitude and airspeed envelope for in-flight engine restarting, and each engine must have restart capability within that envelope. Restart attempts are therefore made inside that published envelope.
    • BIncorrect. The rule does not require restart capability across the airplane's whole operating envelope. It requires capability only within the separately established restart envelope, which is usually much smaller.
    • CIncorrect. 25.903(e) does not require APU bleed air. Its only power provision covers ignition: if windmilling speed cannot supply enough electrical power for ignition, an independent electrical power source must be provided.
    • DIncorrect. The regulation sets no fixed altitude ceiling. The restart altitudes and airspeeds are whatever the established restart envelope defines for that airplane and engine.

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Original questions written from the official exam outline. Not affiliated with FAA; never copied from the real exam.