CEN · 11% of the exam
Respiratory Emergencies practice questions
10 free Respiratory Emergencies questions for the Certified Emergency Nurse (CEN) exam, each with the correct answer and an explanation for every option.
What this domain covers
Airway and breathing emergencies across all ages, including obstructive disease, infection, embolism and chest trauma.
- Exam weight
- 11%
- On a real exam
- ≈ 19 questions
- In our bank
- 65 questions
Topics that come up most
- Asthma and COPD exacerbations
- Pulmonary embolism
- Pneumothorax and haemothorax
- Pneumonia and respiratory infections
- Airway management and ventilation support
How to study it
Learn to read arterial blood gases quickly and link each pattern to a likely cause; scenario questions often give a gas and ask what to do next.
Sample Respiratory Emergencies questions
Try each one before opening the answer. Original questions written to the official exam objectives.
Question 1
Parents bring in their 4-month-old. While asleep, the baby had about 20 seconds of irregular breathing and turned pale, then recovered on their own. There was no crying beforehand. The infant is now afebrile and at baseline. The history and physical exam find no cause. Which term currently describes this event?
- AApparent life-threatening event (ALTE)
- BSimple febrile seizure
- CBreath-holding spell
- DBrief resolved unexplained event (BRUE)
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D) Brief resolved unexplained event (BRUE)
An infant under 1 year who has a brief, self-resolved episode of pallor and irregular breathing, with no cause found on history and exam, meets the definition of a BRUE. BRUE replaced the older term ALTE in 2016.
- AIncorrect. ALTE is the older term. The 2016 American Academy of Pediatrics guideline replaced it with BRUE and added risk stratification.
- BIncorrect. A febrile seizure needs a fever, and this infant is afebrile. Febrile seizures also usually occur in children older than 6 months.
- CIncorrect. Breath-holding spells are triggered by crying or being upset. This event happened during sleep with no crying beforehand, and an identifiable trigger would not fit an 'unexplained' event.
- DCorrect. A BRUE is a sudden, brief (under 1 minute), now-resolved episode in an infant younger than 1 year. It involves color change (cyanosis or pallor), abnormal breathing, a marked change in tone, or altered responsiveness, with no cause found after an appropriate history and exam.
Question 2
Dullness to percussion and decreased breath sounds at a lung base suggest:
- ATension pneumothorax
- BPleural effusion
- CAsthma
- DCroup
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B) Pleural effusion
- AIncorrect. This causes hyperresonance.
- BCorrect. Fluid in the pleural space dampens sounds.
- CIncorrect. This causes wheezing.
- DIncorrect. This causes stridor.
Question 3
An adult arrives after a bee sting with throat tightness, diffuse hives, and audible wheezing. BP is 96/60 mm Hg. Which medication should the nurse give first?
- AAlbuterol 2.5 mg by nebulizer
- BDiphenhydramine 50 mg IV push
- CMethylprednisolone 125 mg IV push
- DEpinephrine 0.5 mg IM in the anterolateral thigh
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D) Epinephrine 0.5 mg IM in the anterolateral thigh
Intramuscular epinephrine in the anterolateral thigh is given first in anaphylaxis. Bronchodilators, antihistamines, steroids, and fluids are add-ons.
- AIncorrect. Albuterol helps bronchospasm that persists, but it's an add-on. It doesn't reverse airway swelling or low blood pressure, and it shouldn't delay epinephrine.
- BIncorrect. Antihistamines may help hives and itching, but they haven't been shown to help in anaphylaxis and don't treat airway or circulatory compromise. They come after epinephrine.
- CIncorrect. Steroids are given to shorten the reaction or reduce a biphasic reaction. They act slowly and aren't first-line.
- DCorrect. IM epinephrine 0.3–0.5 mg (1 mg/mL) is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis. The thigh is preferred over the deltoid.
Question 4
A patient who is 28 weeks pregnant arrives with an acute asthma exacerbation: wheezing, accessory muscle use, and SpO2 of 92% on room air. Which plan of care is most appropriate?
- AGive inhaled albuterol only and hold systemic corticosteroids until after delivery to avoid fetal exposure
- BGive supplemental oxygen to keep SpO2 at about 95% or higher, repeated inhaled albuterol, and early systemic corticosteroids
- CGive an oral selective beta-blocker to control the tachycardia caused by repeated bronchodilator doses
- DKeep oxygen at 2 L/min and accept an SpO2 of 90%–92% to limit the fetus's exposure to oxygen
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B) Give supplemental oxygen to keep SpO2 at about 95% or higher, repeated inhaled albuterol, and early systemic corticosteroids
An acute asthma exacerbation in pregnancy is treated as aggressively as in any adult: oxygen to keep SpO2 at about 95% or higher, inhaled short-acting beta-agonists, and early systemic corticosteroids. Maternal hypoxia from undertreated asthma is a greater risk to the fetus than these medications.
- AIncorrect. Systemic corticosteroids should not be withheld in pregnancy when they are indicated. An undertreated exacerbation, and the maternal hypoxia it causes, puts the fetus at greater risk than the medication does.
- BCorrect. Acute asthma in pregnancy is managed the same way as in other adults. Oxygen is titrated to an SpO2 of about 95% or higher, and inhaled short-acting beta-agonists and early systemic corticosteroids are given promptly, because maternal hypoxia is the main threat to the fetus.
- CIncorrect. Beta-blockers, including cardioselective ones at higher doses, can worsen bronchospasm. They are inappropriate during an acute asthma exacerbation.
- DIncorrect. During an exacerbation, maternal oxygen saturation should be kept at about 95% or higher to prevent fetal hypoxia. A saturation of 90%–92% is not acceptable in this setting.
Question 5
A patient with massive PE has hypotension. What treatment may be considered?
- AWatchful waiting
- BOral aspirin alone
- CDiuretics
- DThrombolytic therapy
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D) Thrombolytic therapy
- AIncorrect. The patient is unstable.
- BIncorrect. That isn't enough.
- CIncorrect. They worsen hypotension.
- DCorrect. It can dissolve the clot quickly.
Question 6
A 2-year-old has had cold symptoms and a low-grade fever for 2 days, and tonight developed a seal-like barking cough and hoarse voice. Stridor is heard only when the child cries. There is no stridor at rest, no drooling, and SpO2 is 97% on room air. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate?
- ASingle dose of oral dexamethasone
- BTongue-blade throat exam with culture swab
- CIV broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy
- DScheduled nebulized albuterol treatments
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A) Single dose of oral dexamethasone
Barking cough, hoarseness, low-grade fever and stridor in a toddler indicate croup. Mild cases are treated with a corticosteroid such as dexamethasone, with nebulized epinephrine added for more significant stridor.
- ACorrect. This is mild viral croup. A corticosteroid reduces airway inflammation and is the main treatment. Nebulized epinephrine is reserved for more significant stridor, such as stridor at rest.
- BIncorrect. Croup is a clinical diagnosis, and a throat culture adds nothing. Agitating a child with upper airway narrowing can worsen stridor.
- CIncorrect. Croup is usually viral. Antibiotics are used only if a bacterial infection is present, and nothing here suggests one.
- DIncorrect. Albuterol treats lower airway bronchospasm. The obstruction in croup is subglottic swelling, which responds to steroids and, when severe, nebulized epinephrine.
Question 7
A patient with known COPD arrives with 3 days of worsening dyspnea, wheezing and increased purulent sputum. SpO2 is 85% on room air, and the patient is alert. Which treatment plan should the nurse anticipate?
- ANebulized albuterol and ipratropium, systemic corticosteroids, an antibiotic, and oxygen titrated to SpO2 88% to 92%
- BNebulized albuterol and ipratropium, systemic corticosteroids, and a nonrebreather at 15 L/min targeting SpO2 100%
- CNebulized albuterol, IV furosemide and fluid restriction, with an antibiotic started only if the sputum culture is positive
- DA long-acting inhaled bronchodilator only, with systemic corticosteroids withheld until spirometry confirms airflow limitation
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A) Nebulized albuterol and ipratropium, systemic corticosteroids, an antibiotic, and oxygen titrated to SpO2 88% to 92%
A COPD exacerbation is treated with short-acting bronchodilators (albuterol/ipratropium), systemic corticosteroids, and antibiotics when infection is likely. Oxygen is titrated to SpO2 88% to 92%, and NIV is used for hypercapnic respiratory failure.
- ACorrect. Short-acting bronchodilators, systemic corticosteroids, and antibiotics when infection is suggested (purulent sputum) are the core of exacerbation treatment. Controlled oxygen targets SpO2 88% to 92%. Noninvasive ventilation is added for hypercapnic respiratory failure.
- BIncorrect. Uncontrolled high-flow oxygen can worsen ventilation-perfusion mismatch and hypercapnia in COPD. Oxygen should be titrated to 88% to 92%. This plan also omits an antibiotic despite purulent sputum.
- CIncorrect. Nothing here suggests heart failure that would call for diuresis. Antibiotics for an exacerbation with purulent sputum are started empirically, not held for culture results. Steroids are also missing.
- DIncorrect. Acute exacerbations are treated with short-acting nebulized bronchodilators and systemic corticosteroids right away. Spirometry is not performed during an acute exacerbation to decide on steroids.
Question 8
Continuous bubbling in a chest tube's water-seal chamber usually indicates:
- ANormal function
- BAn air leak
- CA blocked tube
- DLung fully healed
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B) An air leak
- AIncorrect. Intermittent bubbling with breathing can be normal; continuous is not.
- BCorrect. Check connections and the insertion site.
- CIncorrect. A blocked tube stops fluctuation.
- DIncorrect. This doesn't show healing.
Question 9
A patient with a severe asthma exacerbation has been receiving continuous bronchodilator therapy. Over 30 minutes, the respiratory rate falls from 36 to 14/min, wheezing can no longer be heard and the patient becomes difficult to arouse. SpO2 is 88%. These findings MOST likely indicate:
- AResolution of bronchospasm in response to bronchodilator therapy
- BImpending respiratory failure from fatigue and rising CO2
- CAnxiety-related hyperventilation that is now settling
- DUpper airway obstruction from vocal cord dysfunction
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B) Impending respiratory failure from fatigue and rising CO2
In severe asthma, a silent chest with decreasing consciousness and a slowing respiratory rate means minimal air movement and hypercapnia. This is impending respiratory failure, not improvement, and calls for immediate escalation of care.
- AIncorrect. Real improvement brings better alertness and oxygenation. Here the patient is drowsier and hypoxic, so the loss of wheezing reflects very little air movement, not open airways.
- BCorrect. A silent chest, slowing respirations and decreasing consciousness signal exhaustion and hypercapnia. The patient needs immediate escalation and preparation for ventilatory support.
- CIncorrect. Hyperventilation from anxiety does not cause hypoxemia or obtundation. Drowsiness with a falling respiratory rate points to CO2 retention, not anxiety resolving.
- DIncorrect. Vocal cord dysfunction typically causes inspiratory stridor and throat tightness, usually with preserved oxygenation. It does not explain progressive lethargy and a silent chest.
Question 10
A toddler suddenly coughs and wheezes on one side after playing with peanuts. The nurse suspects:
- AAsthma onset
- BForeign body aspiration
- CCroup
- DPneumonia from a virus
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B) Foreign body aspiration
- AIncorrect. Unilateral findings suggest aspiration.
- BCorrect. Bronchoscopy may be needed.
- CIncorrect. That causes stridor and a barking cough.
- DIncorrect. The sudden onset suggests aspiration.
Respiratory Emergencies: FAQs
How much of the CEN exam is Respiratory Emergencies?
Respiratory Emergencies is 11% of the CEN exam by the official exam guide's weighting, which on a 175-question form works out to roughly 19 questions. The real exam's exact split varies by form.
What does the Respiratory Emergencies domain cover?
Airway and breathing emergencies across all ages, including obstructive disease, infection, embolism and chest trauma.
How should I study Respiratory Emergencies for CEN?
Learn to read arterial blood gases quickly and link each pattern to a likely cause; scenario questions often give a gas and ask what to do next.
Where can I practise more Respiratory Emergencies questions?
This page has 10 free Respiratory Emergencies questions with answers. The ExamWize CEN question bank has 65 questions in this domain. Every practice exam result breaks your score down by domain, and Review Mode re-drills the questions you missed.
Other CEN topics
- Cardiovascular Emergencies12% of the exam
- Neurological Emergencies11% of the exam
- Gastrointestinal Emergencies9% of the exam
- Genitourinary, Gynecology, and Obstetrical Emergencies7% of the exam
- Mental Health Emergencies9% of the exam
- Medical Emergencies10% of the exam
- Musculoskeletal and Wound Emergencies7% of the exam
- Head, Eye, Ear, Nose, Throat Emergencies7% of the exam
- Environment and Toxicology Emergencies, and Communicable Diseases9% of the exam
- Professional Issues8% of the exam
Also: 15 free questions across all topics, the CEN cheat sheet and the study guide.
Get Respiratory Emergencies exam-ready
The full CEN bank has 65 Respiratory Emergencies questions. Timed practice exams match the real exam's length and domain weights, every result shows your score per domain, and Review Mode re-drills the questions you missed.
Not affiliated with BCEN; questions are original, written from the official exam outline, and never copied from the real exam.