Skip to main content

CEN · 7% of the exam

Head, Eye, Ear, Nose, Throat Emergencies practice questions

10 free Head, Eye, Ear, Nose, Throat Emergencies questions for the Certified Emergency Nurse (CEN) exam, each with the correct answer and an explanation for every option.

What this domain covers

Emergencies of the face, eyes, ears, nose and throat, including trauma, infection and threats to sight or airway.

Exam weight
7%
On a real exam
≈ 12 questions
In our bank
41 questions

Topics that come up most

  • Chemical eye burns and irrigation
  • Central retinal artery occlusion and acute angle-closure glaucoma
  • Epistaxis and facial fractures
  • Peritonsillar abscess and epiglottitis
  • Dental trauma and ear emergencies

How to study it

List the eye emergencies that threaten sight and the immediate action for each; chemical burns needing immediate irrigation are a common focus.

Sample Head, Eye, Ear, Nose, Throat Emergencies questions

Try each one before opening the answer. Original questions written to the official exam objectives.

  1. Question 1

    A parent calls the emergency department. Fifteen minutes ago, their 14-year-old knocked out a permanent front tooth playing hockey. The parent cannot put the tooth back in the socket. Which instruction should the nurse give for getting the tooth to the hospital?

    • AHold it by the root and scrub off debris before transport
    • BHold it by the crown and transport it covered in cow's milk
    • CWrap it in dry gauze so the root stays clean
    • DSoak it in hydrogen peroxide to disinfect it
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B) Hold it by the crown and transport it covered in cow's milk

    Putting an avulsed permanent tooth back in the socket is best. If that isn't possible, hold it by the crown, keep it moist (cow's milk, saliva or a storage kit), and get to care right away. Don't scrub it, dry it or disinfect it.

    • AIncorrect. Touching or scrubbing the root damages the cells needed for reattachment. Hold the tooth only by the crown.
    • BCorrect. When the tooth can't be put back in the socket, which is the preferred option, a container of cow's milk keeps it moist. Holding it by the crown protects the root. Keeping it in the mouth between lip and gum, or using a tooth-saving storage kit, also works. Time matters, so the patient should come in right away.
    • CIncorrect. The tooth must be kept moist at all times. Letting it dry lowers the chance that reimplantation will work.
    • DIncorrect. Cleaning the tooth with alcohol or peroxide damages the root surface and should be avoided.
  2. Question 2

    After a blow to the face, a patient has eye pain, tense and progressive proptosis, decreased visual acuity, an afferent pupillary defect, and an intraocular pressure of 48 mm Hg in the injured eye. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate first?

    • AObtain an orbital CT scan before any decompression is attempted
    • BApply a firm pressure patch over the closed eye to limit swelling
    • CPerform an immediate lateral canthotomy and cantholysis at the bedside
    • DGive topical timolol and IV acetazolamide as definitive therapy, then reassess
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C) Perform an immediate lateral canthotomy and cantholysis at the bedside

    Post-traumatic tense proptosis with vision loss, an afferent pupillary defect and IOP of 40 mm Hg or higher means orbital compartment syndrome from a retrobulbar hematoma. Immediate lateral canthotomy and cantholysis is needed, without waiting for imaging.

    • AIncorrect. When signs of optic nerve compromise are present, surgical decompression should not be delayed for imaging. Outcomes are best when treatment happens within about 2 hours.
    • BIncorrect. External pressure raises orbital pressure further and makes optic nerve ischemia worse in orbital compartment syndrome.
    • CCorrect. These findings suggest a retrobulbar hematoma with orbital compartment syndrome. When vision is compromised and IOP is 40 mm Hg or higher, lateral canthotomy and cantholysis is the definitive emergency treatment. It decompresses the orbit and can save vision.
    • DIncorrect. Timolol, acetazolamide and mannitol can help in mild cases without optic nerve compromise, but they do not replace urgent surgical decompression when vision is threatened.
  3. Question 3

    A 72-year-old patient with hypertension has a brisk nosebleed. Blood keeps running down the posterior pharynx after 15 minutes of firm pressure on the soft part of the nose and topical oxymetazoline. No bleeding site is visible on the anterior septum. Which source is most likely?

    • AKiesselbach plexus on the anterior nasal septum
    • BBranches of the sphenopalatine artery in the posterior nasal cavity
    • CAnterior ethmoidal artery branches supplying the anterior septum
    • DA pulmonary source causing hemoptysis
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B) Branches of the sphenopalatine artery in the posterior nasal cavity

    Bleeding into the posterior pharynx with no visible anterior site, despite pressure and vasoconstrictors, suggests posterior epistaxis from sphenopalatine artery branches. It often needs posterior packing or a balloon, admission, and airway monitoring.

    • AIncorrect. Kiesselbach (Little's) area causes about 90% of nosebleeds. These bleeds are usually visible on exam and usually respond to direct pressure, vasoconstrictors, or cautery. That does not fit this patient.
    • BCorrect. Posterior epistaxis comes from terminal branches of the sphenopalatine and posterior ethmoidal arteries (Woodruff plexus). It typically shows as bleeding into the posterior pharynx with no anterior source, and it does not respond to anterior pressure. It may need posterior packing or a balloon catheter, admission, and close airway monitoring.
    • CIncorrect. Anterior ethmoidal branches feed the anterior septal blood supply, so a bleed there would usually be seen on anterior exam and controlled by anterior measures. Bleeding into the posterior pharynx that persists despite pressure points to a posterior source.
    • DIncorrect. Blood from posterior epistaxis can be swallowed or coughed up and look like hemoptysis. In this patient, though, the bleeding clearly starts in the nose and drains down the posterior pharynx, which is a posterior nasal source.
  4. Question 4

    A patient who fell from a bicycle has a fractured upper central incisor. A small pink area with a drop of blood is visible in the center of the fractured surface. Which action by the emergency nurse is most appropriate?

    • ASmooth the sharp enamel edges and arrange routine dental follow-up in about 2 months
    • BCover the exposed area with a calcium hydroxide dressing and arrange an expedited dental referral
    • CTreat it as an enamel-dentin fracture without pulp involvement and arrange follow-up within a few weeks
    • DLeave the fractured surface uncovered so the pulp can drain, and refer to a dentist in 1 to 2 weeks
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B) Cover the exposed area with a calcium hydroxide dressing and arrange an expedited dental referral

    A pink or bleeding center in a fractured tooth means the pulp is exposed. The ED should cover it (for example, with calcium hydroxide) to protect the pulp and arrange an expedited dental referral.

    • AIncorrect. Smoothing the edges and routine follow-up are right for an enamel-only fracture. A pink, bleeding center shows that the pulp is exposed, so this fracture is deeper and more urgent.
    • BCorrect. A pink or red, bleeding center means the pulp is exposed (an Ellis III–type fracture). Covering it, for example with calcium hydroxide, protects the pulp from bacteria. Any fracture with pulp exposure needs an expedited dental referral.
    • CIncorrect. A fracture into dentin without pulp exposure shows yellowish dentin. A pink color or blood means the pulp is involved, which needs urgent referral, not routine follow-up.
    • DIncorrect. Exposed pulp should be covered to prevent bacterial invasion and keep the tooth alive. Waiting 1 to 2 weeks for dental care raises the risk of losing the pulp.
  5. Question 5

    A patient who had a lower molar infection last week arrives with firm swelling under the jaw and chin, an elevated tongue, muffled voice, and drooling. The provider suspects Ludwig angina. Which nursing action is the priority?

    • AKeep the patient sitting upright and prepare difficult-airway and surgical-airway equipment
    • BLay the patient supine and transport promptly for a contrast CT of the neck
    • CGive the first dose of an oral antibiotic and arrange urgent dental follow-up
    • DGive IV sedation to relieve anxiety before the airway is assessed
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Keep the patient sitting upright and prepare difficult-airway and surgical-airway equipment

    Ludwig angina is a fast-spreading cellulitis of the floor of the mouth, usually from a dental source, and can block the airway. Protecting the airway comes first: keep the patient upright and prepare difficult and surgical airway equipment.

    • ACorrect. Ludwig angina can rapidly block the airway as the tissues and tongue swell. Protecting the airway comes first: let the patient stay upright and have advanced and surgical airway equipment ready.
    • BIncorrect. Imaging is only for stable patients who can breathe comfortably and handle their secretions while lying flat. Lying a drooling patient flat can make the airway obstruction worse.
    • CIncorrect. Ludwig angina needs broad-spectrum IV antibiotics and hospital care. A patient who is drooling cannot reliably swallow oral medicine, and outpatient care ignores the airway threat.
    • DIncorrect. Sedating the patient before a plan to secure the airway is in place can cause sudden loss of the airway. When intubation is needed, awake fiberoptic intubation is preferred.
  6. Question 6

    Pain with eye movement, swelling and proptosis after a sinus infection suggest:

    • AAllergic conjunctivitis
    • BSimple viral conjunctivitis
    • CA stye
    • DOrbital cellulitis
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D) Orbital cellulitis

    • AIncorrect. That doesn't cause proptosis.
    • BIncorrect. That doesn't cause proptosis.
    • CIncorrect. That's a localized eyelid infection.
    • DCorrect. It needs IV antibiotics and imaging.
  7. Question 7

    A drooling, febrile child sitting upright and leaning forward may have epiglottitis. The nurse should:

    • ALay the child flat
    • BInspect the throat with a blade
    • CKeep the child calm
    • DDraw blood right away
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C) Keep the child calm

    • AIncorrect. Let the child keep a position of comfort.
    • BIncorrect. This can trigger obstruction.
    • CCorrect. Avoid examining the throat; prepare for airway management.
    • DIncorrect. Avoid upsetting the child.
  8. Question 8

    A cyclist struck the front of the neck on the handlebars. The patient now has a hoarse voice, pain over the thyroid cartilage, and crepitus when the anterior neck is palpated. Which assessment and priority are most appropriate?

    • ASternocleidomastoid contusion; apply ice and discharge the patient with oral analgesics
    • BLaryngeal injury; reassess the airway often and prepare for a surgical airway if it worsens
    • CCarotid artery dissection; perform frequent neurological checks for one-sided weakness
    • DAcute epiglottitis; keep the patient upright and give IV antibiotics
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B) Laryngeal injury; reassess the airway often and prepare for a surgical airway if it worsens

    Hoarseness, pain over the thyroid cartilage, and subcutaneous emphysema after blunt anterior neck trauma suggest laryngeal injury. The priority is ongoing airway assessment and readiness for a surgical airway.

    • AIncorrect. A muscle bruise does not explain hoarseness or crepitus (subcutaneous emphysema). Together, these findings point to an airway injury that needs close monitoring, not discharge.
    • BCorrect. Hoarseness, anterior neck pain, and subcutaneous emphysema after blunt neck trauma are warning signs of laryngeal injury. The airway can deteriorate quickly. If it becomes unstable, a surgical airway may be needed, because intubation attempts can worsen the injury.
    • CIncorrect. Blunt neck trauma can cause carotid dissection, but that usually shows up as neurological deficits. Dissection does not explain hoarseness or air in the soft tissues of the neck.
    • DIncorrect. Epiglottitis is an infection, not a traumatic injury. A direct blow followed by hoarseness and crepitus points to laryngeal injury.
  9. Question 9

    A 4-year-old who was treated for acute otitis media last week now has fever, ear pain, and a red, tender, boggy swelling behind the left ear. The left auricle is pushed outward and forward. Which condition does the nurse suspect?

    • AAcute otitis externa
    • BAcute mastoiditis
    • CReactive postauricular lymphadenitis
    • DAuricular perichondritis
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B) Acute mastoiditis

    Swelling, redness and tenderness behind the ear with the auricle pushed forward, after otitis media, suggests acute mastoiditis. It needs prompt parenteral antibiotics, imaging, and possibly surgical drainage.

    • AIncorrect. Otitis externa is an infection of the ear canal. It causes pain when the tragus or pinna is moved and swelling of the canal. It does not usually cause a fluctuant swelling over the mastoid that pushes the auricle forward.
    • BCorrect. Mastoiditis is a complication of middle ear infection. Swelling behind the ear can make the ear stick out, and the child may also have fever, pain, drainage and hearing loss. Treatment usually starts with antibiotic injections. CT or MRI is used to evaluate the mastoid, and mastoidectomy or myringotomy may be needed if antibiotics fail.
    • CIncorrect. An enlarged postauricular lymph node is usually a discrete, mobile lump. It does not cause diffuse boggy swelling over the mastoid bone that pushes the auricle outward after a recent otitis media.
    • DIncorrect. Perichondritis is an infection of the cartilage of the outer ear. It causes a red, swollen pinna, not swelling over the mastoid bone behind the ear after a middle ear infection.
  10. Question 10

    A patient's upper jaw and midface move when the teeth are pulled forward. This suggests:

    • AA simple nosebleed
    • BA Le Fort fracture
    • CA dental abscess
    • DTMJ dysfunction
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B) A Le Fort fracture

    • AIncorrect. The movement suggests a fracture.
    • BCorrect. Watch the airway closely.
    • CIncorrect. It's a trauma finding.
    • DIncorrect. It's a trauma finding.

Head, Eye, Ear, Nose, Throat Emergencies: FAQs

How much of the CEN exam is Head, Eye, Ear, Nose, Throat Emergencies?

Head, Eye, Ear, Nose, Throat Emergencies is 7% of the CEN exam by the official exam guide's weighting, which on a 175-question form works out to roughly 12 questions. The real exam's exact split varies by form.

What does the Head, Eye, Ear, Nose, Throat Emergencies domain cover?

Emergencies of the face, eyes, ears, nose and throat, including trauma, infection and threats to sight or airway.

How should I study Head, Eye, Ear, Nose, Throat Emergencies for CEN?

List the eye emergencies that threaten sight and the immediate action for each; chemical burns needing immediate irrigation are a common focus.

Where can I practise more Head, Eye, Ear, Nose, Throat Emergencies questions?

This page has 10 free Head, Eye, Ear, Nose, Throat Emergencies questions with answers. The ExamWize CEN question bank has 41 questions in this domain. Every practice exam result breaks your score down by domain, and Review Mode re-drills the questions you missed.

Get Head, Eye, Ear, Nose, Throat Emergencies exam-ready

The full CEN bank has 41 Head, Eye, Ear, Nose, Throat Emergencies questions. Timed practice exams match the real exam's length and domain weights, every result shows your score per domain, and Review Mode re-drills the questions you missed.

Not affiliated with BCEN; questions are original, written from the official exam outline, and never copied from the real exam.