Skip to main content

CEN · 10% of the exam

Medical Emergencies practice questions

10 free Medical Emergencies questions for the Certified Emergency Nurse (CEN) exam, each with the correct answer and an explanation for every option.

What this domain covers

Systemic medical emergencies that cut across body systems, including endocrine, haematological, immune and infection-related conditions.

Exam weight
10%
On a real exam
≈ 18 questions
In our bank
61 questions

Topics that come up most

  • Diabetic ketoacidosis and hypoglycaemia
  • Sepsis and septic shock
  • Electrolyte and fluid imbalances
  • Anaphylaxis and allergic reactions
  • Sickle cell crisis, coagulopathies and immunocompromise

How to study it

Learn the expected lab values and the treatment order for DKA and sepsis, as questions often hinge on what to correct first.

Sample Medical Emergencies questions

Try each one before opening the answer. Original questions written to the official exam objectives.

  1. Question 1

    After exposure to HIV-positive blood, how soon should post-exposure prophylaxis start?

    • ANever; PEP isn't effective
    • BAfter 2 weeks
    • COnly after symptoms such as fever or rash appear in the following weeks
    • DAs soon as possible, and no later than 72 hours
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D) As soon as possible, and no later than 72 hours

    • AIncorrect. It's effective.
    • BIncorrect. That's too late.
    • CIncorrect. Start early.
    • DCorrect. Early treatment works best.
  2. Question 2

    An unresponsive patient with type 1 diabetes has a fingerstick glucose of 38 mg/dL. Attempts at peripheral IV access have so far failed. Which action should the nurse take next?

    • APlace oral glucose gel between the cheek and gum and recheck in 15 minutes
    • BGive thiamine 100 mg IM and recheck the glucose in 15 minutes
    • CGive glucagon 1 mg IM while IV access efforts continue
    • DHold treatment until a laboratory serum glucose confirms the fingerstick result
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C) Give glucagon 1 mg IM while IV access efforts continue

    For an unresponsive hypoglycemic patient without IV access, give IM or intranasal glucagon and nothing by mouth. Glucagon depends on liver glycogen stores, so IV dextrose is needed as soon as access is obtained if the patient does not respond.

    • AIncorrect. Oral or buccal carbohydrate is for patients who are awake and can swallow safely. Giving it to an unresponsive patient risks aspiration and may not be absorbed reliably.
    • BIncorrect. Thiamine is given with dextrose to malnourished or alcohol-dependent patients to prevent Wernicke encephalopathy, but it does not raise blood glucose.
    • CCorrect. When a patient cannot swallow and IV dextrose cannot be given, IM (or intranasal) glucagon raises glucose by releasing the liver's glycogen stores. It may not work in patients whose glycogen is depleted, such as those with alcohol use, starvation, or liver failure, so IV dextrose should be given as soon as access is obtained if the patient does not respond.
    • DIncorrect. Severe hypoglycemia with unresponsiveness is an emergency that can cause seizures and brain injury. Treatment should start right away based on the point-of-care result.
  3. Question 3

    Fifteen minutes into a unit of packed red blood cells, a patient reports chills and low back pain. Their temperature has risen from 37.0°C to 38.9°C (98.6°F to 102.0°F). What should the nurse do first?

    • ASlow the infusion rate and give acetaminophen as ordered
    • BStop the transfusion and keep the IV open with normal saline
    • CGive diphenhydramine and resume once the symptoms ease
    • DDraw blood and urine samples before interrupting the unit
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B) Stop the transfusion and keep the IV open with normal saline

    With fever, chills, and back pain during a transfusion, assume an acute hemolytic reaction and stop the transfusion first. Keep the IV open with saline, monitor vital signs, notify the provider and blood bank, and return the product for testing.

    • AIncorrect. Fever with chills and back or flank pain suggests an acute hemolytic reaction. Slowing the rate still lets incompatible blood reach the patient, and an antipyretic only hides the fever.
    • BCorrect. Stopping the transfusion immediately comes first. Then keep the line open with 0.9% saline, check vital signs often, do a clerical check of the patient and the unit, notify the provider and blood bank, and send the bag, tubing, and post-transfusion samples for testing.
    • CIncorrect. Antihistamines treat mild allergic (urticarial) reactions. They do not treat hemolysis, and resuming a suspect unit could be fatal.
    • DIncorrect. Post-transfusion blood and urine samples are needed, but they are collected after the transfusion is stopped. Delaying the stop increases exposure to the incompatible product.
  4. Question 4

    An adult arrives in the ED with suspected pneumonia, a BP of 78/44 mm Hg, and a lactate of 4.6 mmol/L. Blood cultures have been drawn and antibiotics are being started. Which initial fluid resuscitation is consistent with Surviving Sepsis Campaign guidance?

    • A5% albumin at 10 mL/kg over the first hour as the initial resuscitation fluid
    • BAt least 30 mL/kg of IV crystalloid within the first 3 hours
    • CA 1-liter bolus of hydroxyethyl starch, repeated until the MAP reaches 65 mm Hg
    • DMaintenance-rate crystalloid only, with fluid boluses held until vasopressors are started
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B) At least 30 mL/kg of IV crystalloid within the first 3 hours

    For sepsis-induced hypotension or a lactate of 4 mmol/L or higher, the 2021 Surviving Sepsis Campaign guidelines suggest at least 30 mL/kg of IV crystalloid within the first 3 hours (a weak recommendation), with frequent reassessment. Starches should not be used, and albumin is reserved for patients who need large crystalloid volumes.

    • AIncorrect. Crystalloid is the first-line resuscitation fluid. Albumin is suggested only as an add-on for patients who have already received large volumes of crystalloid.
    • BCorrect. For sepsis-induced hypotension or a lactate of 4 mmol/L or higher, the 2021 guidelines suggest at least 30 mL/kg of IV crystalloid (balanced crystalloid preferred) within the first 3 hours. This is a weak recommendation, and the patient should be reassessed often for fluid responsiveness.
    • CIncorrect. The guidelines recommend against starches for resuscitation because they are linked to kidney injury and the need for renal replacement therapy.
    • DIncorrect. Prompt fluid resuscitation is part of initial management for sepsis-induced hypotension. Holding boluses delays restoring perfusion. Vasopressors are added to keep the MAP at 65 mm Hg or higher, not used to replace initial fluids.
  5. Question 5

    An adult with sickle cell disease has chest pain, a temperature of 39°C (102.2°F), and a new infiltrate on chest x-ray. Which complication do these findings suggest?

    • AAcute splenic sequestration crisis
    • BAplastic crisis
    • CUncomplicated vaso-occlusive pain crisis
    • DAcute chest syndrome
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D) Acute chest syndrome

    In sickle cell disease, a new infiltrate on chest imaging with chest pain or fever defines acute chest syndrome. It is the leading cause of death in sickle cell disease and needs urgent treatment.

    • AIncorrect. Splenic sequestration presents with sudden splenomegaly, a sharp drop in hemoglobin and hypovolemic shock. It is not characterized by chest pain and a new lung infiltrate.
    • BIncorrect. Aplastic crisis, often triggered by parvovirus B19, causes severe anemia with a low reticulocyte count. It does not cause a new pulmonary infiltrate.
    • CIncorrect. A pain crisis can cause chest pain, but a new infiltrate on imaging with fever goes beyond an uncomplicated pain crisis and meets the definition of acute chest syndrome.
    • DCorrect. Acute chest syndrome is defined as a new pulmonary infiltrate plus symptoms such as chest pain, fever, cough, respiratory distress or hypoxemia. It is the most common cause of death in sickle cell disease and needs prompt oxygen, pain control, antibiotics and possibly transfusion.
  6. Question 6

    A patient with diabetic ketoacidosis is about to start an IV insulin infusion. Why must the nurse confirm the serum potassium level first?

    • AInsulin moves potassium into cells and can cause dangerous hypokalemia
    • BInsulin releases potassium from cells and can cause dangerous hyperkalemia
    • CA high serum potassium shows that total body potassium stores are adequate
    • DPotassium sets the insulin dose, because higher levels require larger doses
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Insulin moves potassium into cells and can cause dangerous hypokalemia

    Insulin shifts potassium into cells. DKA patients have a total body potassium deficit, so potassium must be confirmed adequate (and replaced if low) before insulin is started to prevent life-threatening hypokalemia.

    • ACorrect. Insulin drives potassium into the cells. Total body potassium is depleted in DKA, so insulin can cause hypokalemia, dysrhythmias and cardiac arrest. If potassium is low (below 3.5 mmol/L by current guidance; older guidance used 3.3 mEq/L), replace it before starting insulin.
    • BIncorrect. This reverses the actual effect. Insulin lowers serum potassium by shifting it into cells.
    • CIncorrect. In DKA, acidosis and lack of insulin shift potassium out of cells, so serum potassium is often high even though total body potassium is depleted.
    • DIncorrect. Weight-based insulin dosing is not adjusted upward for high potassium. Potassium is checked to prevent insulin-induced hypokalemia.
  7. Question 7

    A patient has a red "bull's-eye" rash after a tick bite. This suggests:

    • ALyme disease
    • BMeasles
    • CPoison ivy
    • DRingworm only
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Lyme disease

    • ACorrect. It's treated with antibiotics.
    • BIncorrect. The rash pattern suggests Lyme.
    • CIncorrect. The rash pattern suggests Lyme.
    • DIncorrect. The history suggests Lyme.
  8. Question 8

    A 38-year-old patient reports several months of heavy menstrual bleeding and increasing tiredness. Which group of findings most strongly suggests significant anemia?

    • APale skin and conjunctivae, tachycardia, and shortness of breath on exertion
    • BRuddy facial flushing, headache, and an elevated hematocrit on point-of-care testing
    • CBradycardia, cold intolerance, dry skin, and recent weight gain
    • DFever, neck stiffness, photophobia, and a petechial rash
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Pale skin and conjunctivae, tachycardia, and shortness of breath on exertion

    Significant anemia lowers oxygen delivery, which causes fatigue, pallor, compensatory tachycardia, and shortness of breath on exertion. Chronic blood loss, such as heavy menstrual bleeding, is a common cause.

    • ACorrect. Less oxygen-carrying capacity causes pallor, a compensatory fast heart rate, and shortness of breath with exertion. Check hemoglobin and hematocrit and assess for ongoing blood loss.
    • BIncorrect. A ruddy complexion with a high hematocrit points to too many red cells (polycythemia), the opposite of anemia.
    • CIncorrect. This cluster suggests hypothyroidism. Anemia usually causes a fast heart rate, not a slow one.
    • DIncorrect. These findings suggest meningitis (possibly meningococcal), not anemia from chronic blood loss.
  9. Question 9

    A sulfonylurea overdose causes repeated low glucose despite dextrose. What may be added?

    • AInsulin
    • BOctreotide
    • CGlipizide
    • DFurosemide
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B) Octreotide

    • AIncorrect. That worsens it.
    • BCorrect. It reduces insulin release.
    • CIncorrect. That's another sulfonylurea.
    • DIncorrect. It doesn't treat this.
  10. Question 10

    A patient who received chemotherapy 9 days ago presents with a temperature of 38.6°C (101.5°F). The absolute neutrophil count is 300/mm³. Which action should the nurse anticipate first?

    • AGive an oral antipyretic and recheck the temperature in 1 hour before further workup
    • BRoom the patient in the general waiting area until a treatment bed opens
    • CDraw blood cultures and promptly start broad-spectrum IV antibiotics
    • DHold antibiotics until culture results identify a specific organism
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C) Draw blood cultures and promptly start broad-spectrum IV antibiotics

    Febrile neutropenia after chemotherapy is a medical emergency. The nurse should expect blood cultures to be drawn, followed promptly by empiric broad-spectrum IV antibiotics, without waiting for antipyretic response or culture results.

    • AIncorrect. Lowering the fever does not treat the possible underlying infection. Waiting to reassess delays care for a life-threatening emergency.
    • BIncorrect. CDC advises that chemotherapy patients with fever should not wait long and should be seen quickly. Neutropenic patients should also be kept away from crowded waiting areas to limit exposure to infection.
    • CCorrect. Fever during chemotherapy-related neutropenia is a medical emergency. Fever may be the only sign of a life-threatening infection, so cultures are drawn and empiric broad-spectrum IV antibiotics are started without delay.
    • DIncorrect. Culture results take days. Neutropenic patients can worsen quickly from even minor infections, so empiric antibiotics are started right after cultures are drawn.

Medical Emergencies: FAQs

How much of the CEN exam is Medical Emergencies?

Medical Emergencies is 10% of the CEN exam by the official exam guide's weighting, which on a 175-question form works out to roughly 18 questions. The real exam's exact split varies by form.

What does the Medical Emergencies domain cover?

Systemic medical emergencies that cut across body systems, including endocrine, haematological, immune and infection-related conditions.

How should I study Medical Emergencies for CEN?

Learn the expected lab values and the treatment order for DKA and sepsis, as questions often hinge on what to correct first.

Where can I practise more Medical Emergencies questions?

This page has 10 free Medical Emergencies questions with answers. The ExamWize CEN question bank has 61 questions in this domain. Every practice exam result breaks your score down by domain, and Review Mode re-drills the questions you missed.

Get Medical Emergencies exam-ready

The full CEN bank has 61 Medical Emergencies questions. Timed practice exams match the real exam's length and domain weights, every result shows your score per domain, and Review Mode re-drills the questions you missed.

Not affiliated with BCEN; questions are original, written from the official exam outline, and never copied from the real exam.