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CEN · 9% of the exam

Environment and Toxicology Emergencies, and Communicable Diseases practice questions

10 free Environment and Toxicology Emergencies, and Communicable Diseases questions for the Certified Emergency Nurse (CEN) exam, each with the correct answer and an explanation for every option.

What this domain covers

Injuries caused by the environment, poisoning and overdose, and the recognition and control of communicable diseases.

Exam weight
9%
On a real exam
≈ 16 questions
In our bank
59 questions

Topics that come up most

  • Heat and cold emergencies and drowning
  • Burns and electrical injuries
  • Overdose, toxidromes and antidotes
  • Envenomation and bites
  • Communicable disease isolation and precautions

How to study it

Put each common toxidrome on a card with its signs and antidote, such as naloxone for opioids and acetylcysteine for paracetamol; matching is a core skill here.

Sample Environment and Toxicology Emergencies, and Communicable Diseases questions

Try each one before opening the answer. Original questions written to the official exam objectives.

  1. Question 1

    A 9-year-old is pulled from a freshwater pool after an unwitnessed submersion. There is no history of diving and no signs of trauma. The child is breathing weakly and is cyanotic. What is the priority focus of initial emergency care?

    • AReversing hypoxemia by supporting the airway, ventilation, and supplemental oxygen
    • BCorrecting the hyponatremia and hemodilution expected after freshwater aspiration
    • CApplying full cervical spine immobilization before any airway intervention
    • DStarting chest compressions before rescue breaths, following the standard CAB sequence
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Reversing hypoxemia by supporting the airway, ventilation, and supplemental oxygen

    Hypoxia is the main life threat in drowning, so restoring airway, ventilation, and oxygenation comes first. Electrolyte correction and routine spinal immobilization are usually not the priority.

    • ACorrect. Tissue hypoxia, especially cerebral hypoxia, is the main cause of illness and death in drowning. Restoring oxygenation and ventilation comes first, with SpO2 targeted at about 92-96%.
    • BIncorrect. Clinically significant electrolyte disturbances are uncommon in nonfatal drowning. Freshwater and saltwater both cause hypoxemia through surfactant damage.
    • CIncorrect. Routine spinal immobilization is indicated only when there is a history or signs of trauma, such as diving or a fall. Here it would delay airway management.
    • DIncorrect. In drowning, airway and breathing come before compressions because the arrest is hypoxic. Resuscitation starts with rescue breaths.
  2. Question 2

    A smoke inhalation victim with severe lactic acidosis may have cyanide toxicity. The antidote is:

    • AVitamin K (phytonadione)
    • BNaloxone hydrochloride
    • CFlumazenil
    • DHydroxocobalamin
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D) Hydroxocobalamin

    • AIncorrect. This reverses warfarin.
    • BIncorrect. This reverses opioids.
    • CIncorrect. This reverses benzodiazepines.
    • DCorrect. It binds cyanide to form vitamin B12.
  3. Question 3

    An ED is preparing to receive patients from a radiological incident. Which three protective actions does the CDC describe under the ALARA (as low as reasonably achievable) principle for limiting staff radiation dose?

    • ADecontamination, dosimetry and potassium iodide
    • BTime, distance and shielding
    • CIsolation, ventilation and respiratory protection
    • DDetection, triage and decorporation
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B) Time, distance and shielding

    Under the CDC's ALARA principle, radiation dose is kept low by limiting time near the source, increasing distance from it, and using shielding. Measures such as decontamination, potassium iodide and decorporation agents are separate parts of radiation-incident management.

    • AIncorrect. Decontamination, dosimetry badges and potassium iodide each have a place in managing a radiation incident. They are not the three ALARA protective actions. Potassium iodide protects only the thyroid, and only against radioactive iodine.
    • BCorrect. The CDC's ALARA guidance tells staff to spend as little time near the source as possible, increase their distance from it, and place shielding between themselves and the source.
    • CIncorrect. These are infection-control and airborne-hazard measures. They do not reduce dose from external radiation, which is what time, distance and shielding address.
    • DIncorrect. Detection, triage and decorporation agents (such as Prussian blue or DTPA) are parts of radiation-incident care. They are not the ALARA protective actions for staff.
  4. Question 4

    A patient brought to the ED after heavy alcohol use is drowsy and hard to arouse, has vomited twice, and is breathing on their own. Which nursing action best protects the airway while awaiting further evaluation?

    • APlace the patient supine with a pillow under the head to keep the neck flexed and comfortable.
    • BPlace the patient in the lateral recovery position with continuous airway and respiratory monitoring.
    • CGive small sips of oral fluids or coffee to dilute the alcohol and improve alertness.
    • DLet the patient sleep it off in a quiet, dim room with checks at the end of the shift.
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B) Place the patient in the lateral recovery position with continuous airway and respiratory monitoring.

    A drowsy, vomiting intoxicated patient is at high risk of aspiration. The recovery (lateral) position with continuous monitoring keeps the airway clear. Oral intake and leaving the patient unattended are unsafe.

    • AIncorrect. Lying supine lets vomit pool in the airway, and a pillow under the head flexes the neck and can block the airway. First-aid guidance says not to place a pillow under an unconscious person's head.
    • BCorrect. Side-lying (recovery) position lets vomit drain from the mouth and helps keep the airway clear in a patient with a dulled gag reflex. The patient still needs close monitoring.
    • CIncorrect. Giving anything by mouth to a patient with reduced consciousness raises the risk of aspiration. Caffeine does not reverse alcohol intoxication.
    • DIncorrect. A patient with reduced consciousness who is vomiting should not be left unattended. Blood alcohol can keep rising, and the patient could aspirate or stop breathing without anyone noticing.
  5. Question 5

    A 22-year-old is brought in after using a product sold as "bath salts." He is combative and tachycardic, with a temperature of 40.1°C (104.2°F). The nurse recognizes that this product most likely contains which substance?

    • AA synthetic cathinone acting as a CNS stimulant
    • BA synthetic cannabinoid such as K2 or Spice
    • CMagnesium sulfate from a cosmetic soaking salt
    • DAn opioid analgesic such as an illicit fentanyl
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) A synthetic cathinone acting as a CNS stimulant

    'Bath salts' are synthetic cathinones, potent CNS stimulants similar to cocaine and methamphetamine that cause a sympathomimetic picture of agitation, tachycardia and hyperthermia.

    • ACorrect. CDC describes synthetic cathinones, sold as 'psychoactive bath salts,' as potent central nervous system stimulants that mimic cocaine, methamphetamine and MDMA. This fits the agitation, tachycardia and hyperthermia.
    • BIncorrect. Synthetic cannabinoids are a different designer-drug class, usually smoked as herbal blends. The product sold as 'bath salts' is a synthetic cathinone.
    • CIncorrect. Epsom (soaking) salts are magnesium sulfate. The street-drug 'bath salts' only borrow the name to hide what they are. Magnesium toxicity causes depression, such as weakness, low blood pressure and loss of reflexes, not stimulant toxicity.
    • DIncorrect. Opioids cause CNS and respiratory depression with small pupils, not combative agitation with hyperthermia. Fentanyl may be co-ingested, but it is not what 'bath salts' are.
  6. Question 6

    For a venomous snakebite to the leg, the nurse should:

    • AApply ice directly
    • BApply a tight tourniquet
    • CCut and suck the wound
    • DImmobilize at heart level
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D) Immobilize at heart level

    • AIncorrect. This can worsen injury.
    • BIncorrect. This can cause tissue damage.
    • CIncorrect. This is harmful.
    • DCorrect. Keep the limb still and mark swelling; antivenom may be needed.
  7. Question 7

    For some jellyfish stings, what is used to stop more venom release?

    • AVinegar
    • BFresh water rubbed vigorously
    • CUrine
    • DIce rubbed on the area
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Vinegar

    • ACorrect. It's used for certain species.
    • BIncorrect. That can trigger more stinging.
    • CIncorrect. That isn't recommended.
    • DIncorrect. That can trigger more stinging.
  8. Question 8

    A patient with moderate hypothermia is being actively rewarmed in the ED. Which statement best describes core temperature afterdrop?

    • AHypotension from peripheral vasodilation and fluid shifts as the patient warms
    • BContinued fall in core temperature as cold blood from the extremities returns to the core
    • CRise in serum potassium as cold-injured tissue is reperfused during rewarming
    • DLoss of the shivering response once core temperature falls below about 32°C
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B) Continued fall in core temperature as cold blood from the extremities returns to the core

    Afterdrop is a further fall in core temperature after rewarming starts, caused by cold peripheral blood returning to the core as the limbs vasodilate. Warming the trunk before the extremities helps reduce it.

    • AIncorrect. Hypotension during rewarming is often called rewarming shock. It can happen at the same time as afterdrop, but afterdrop specifically means a further fall in core temperature.
    • BCorrect. As the periphery warms and its vessels dilate, cold blood from the limbs returns to the core and core temperature keeps falling. To reduce this risk, rewarm the trunk (axillae, chest, back) before the extremities.
    • CIncorrect. Potassium changes can occur with hypothermia and cell injury. Afterdrop, however, describes a change in core temperature, not an electrolyte shift.
    • DIncorrect. Shivering does stop as hypothermia becomes more severe, but that is part of how hypothermia progresses. It is not the further temperature drop that happens after rewarming begins.
  9. Question 9

    A patient who intentionally ingested a large amount of verapamil 1 hour ago remains hypotensive and bradycardic after IV fluid boluses. Which therapies should the nurse anticipate next?

    • AIV calcium and high-dose insulin infusion with dextrose
    • BUrgent hemodialysis and continued crystalloid boluses
    • CIV lipid emulsion and whole bowel irrigation
    • DIV sodium bicarbonate and magnesium sulfate
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) IV calcium and high-dose insulin infusion with dextrose

    Shock from calcium channel blocker toxicity that persists after fluids is treated with IV calcium and high-dose insulin euglycemic therapy, adding vasopressors as needed. Hemodialysis is ineffective, and lipid emulsion is reserved for refractory arrest or periarrest.

    • ACorrect. IV calcium may improve hypotension and contractility. High-dose insulin euglycemic therapy is a first-line treatment for CCB-induced cardiogenic shock. Dextrose and potassium are given and monitored, and vasopressors are added if shock persists.
    • BIncorrect. CCBs are lipophilic, highly protein-bound, and have a large volume of distribution, so hemodialysis is largely ineffective. More fluid alone has already failed to correct the shock.
    • CIncorrect. Lipid emulsion is reserved for cardiac arrest or periarrest after maximal conventional therapy has failed. Whole bowel irrigation is contraindicated when the patient is hemodynamically unstable.
    • DIncorrect. Bicarbonate treats sodium-channel blocker toxicity (e.g., tricyclic antidepressants), and magnesium treats torsades de pointes. Neither reverses calcium channel blockade.
  10. Question 10

    Dry skin, dilated pupils, fever and confusion ('hot as a hare, mad as a hatter') suggest:

    • AAnticholinergic toxicity
    • BOpioid overdose
    • COrganophosphate poisoning
    • DHypothermia
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Anticholinergic toxicity

    • ACorrect. Supportive care; physostigmine may be considered.
    • BIncorrect. Opioids cause pinpoint pupils.
    • CIncorrect. That causes secretions and small pupils.
    • DIncorrect. The patient is febrile.

Environment and Toxicology Emergencies, and Communicable Diseases: FAQs

How much of the CEN exam is Environment and Toxicology Emergencies, and Communicable Diseases?

Environment and Toxicology Emergencies, and Communicable Diseases is 9% of the CEN exam by the official exam guide's weighting, which on a 175-question form works out to roughly 16 questions. The real exam's exact split varies by form.

What does the Environment and Toxicology Emergencies, and Communicable Diseases domain cover?

Injuries caused by the environment, poisoning and overdose, and the recognition and control of communicable diseases.

How should I study Environment and Toxicology Emergencies, and Communicable Diseases for CEN?

Put each common toxidrome on a card with its signs and antidote, such as naloxone for opioids and acetylcysteine for paracetamol; matching is a core skill here.

Where can I practise more Environment and Toxicology Emergencies, and Communicable Diseases questions?

This page has 10 free Environment and Toxicology Emergencies, and Communicable Diseases questions with answers. The ExamWize CEN question bank has 59 questions in this domain. Every practice exam result breaks your score down by domain, and Review Mode re-drills the questions you missed.

Get Environment and Toxicology Emergencies, and Communicable Diseases exam-ready

The full CEN bank has 59 Environment and Toxicology Emergencies, and Communicable Diseases questions. Timed practice exams match the real exam's length and domain weights, every result shows your score per domain, and Review Mode re-drills the questions you missed.

Not affiliated with BCEN; questions are original, written from the official exam outline, and never copied from the real exam.