CEN · 7% of the exam
Genitourinary, Gynecology, and Obstetrical Emergencies practice questions
10 free Genitourinary, Gynecology, and Obstetrical Emergencies questions for the Certified Emergency Nurse (CEN) exam, each with the correct answer and an explanation for every option.
What this domain covers
Emergencies of the urinary and reproductive systems and of pregnancy, including obstetric complications, emergency delivery and renal problems.
- Exam weight
- 7%
- On a real exam
- ≈ 12 questions
- In our bank
- 41 questions
Topics that come up most
- Ectopic pregnancy and placental emergencies
- Pre-eclampsia, eclampsia and HELLP syndrome
- Emergency delivery and postpartum haemorrhage
- Testicular torsion and genitourinary trauma
- Urinary infections, renal calculi and acute kidney injury
How to study it
Focus on obstetric red flags and the drug used for each, such as magnesium sulphate for eclampsia, since these questions are high-stakes and predictable.
Sample Genitourinary, Gynecology, and Obstetrical Emergencies questions
Try each one before opening the answer. Original questions written to the official exam objectives.
Question 1
A patient has a precipitous delivery in the emergency department. The term newborn is crying and has good muscle tone. What should the nurse do first?
- ADry the newborn and place them skin-to-skin on the mother, covered with a warm blanket
- BSuction the mouth and nose deeply with a bulb syringe before doing anything else
- CClamp and cut the umbilical cord right away so the newborn can go to a warmer
- DGive vitamin K and erythromycin eye ointment before drying the newborn
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A) Dry the newborn and place them skin-to-skin on the mother, covered with a warm blanket
For a vigorous newborn, the first step is drying and keeping them warm (skin-to-skin). Routine suctioning isn't recommended, and cord clamping and prophylaxis can wait.
- ACorrect. For a stable newborn, the first step is to dry them and keep them warm, ideally skin-to-skin. This prevents heat loss, and drying also stimulates breathing.
- BIncorrect. Routine suctioning is not recommended for a vigorous newborn. Suction only if the airway is blocked.
- CIncorrect. For a stable newborn, cord clamping should be delayed when appropriate, and the newborn can stay skin-to-skin with the mother.
- DIncorrect. Vitamin K can be given within 6 hours of birth and eye prophylaxis within 24 hours. Neither comes before keeping the newborn warm.
Question 2
In an incomplete abortion, what is true?
- ASome pregnancy tissue remains in the uterus
- BAll tissue has passed and the cervix is closed
- CThe pregnancy continues normally
- DThe cervix is closed with no bleeding
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A) Some pregnancy tissue remains in the uterus
- ACorrect. Bleeding may continue.
- BIncorrect. That's complete.
- CIncorrect. That's threatened.
- DIncorrect. That isn't incomplete.
Question 3
A 24-year-old man with sickle cell disease has had a rigid, painful erection for 5 hours that began during sleep. Which statement about his condition is accurate?
- AIt is most likely ischemic priapism, a urologic emergency usually managed with corporal aspiration and intracavernosal phenylephrine
- BIt is most likely nonischemic (high-flow) priapism, which often resolves on its own and can be safely observed
- CHydration, oxygen, and exchange transfusion are definitive therapy, so urologic consultation can wait until they are finished
- DCorporal tissue damage does not begin until about 24 hours, so he can be referred to a next-day urology clinic
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A) It is most likely ischemic priapism, a urologic emergency usually managed with corporal aspiration and intracavernosal phenylephrine
A painful erection lasting more than 4 hours in sickle cell disease is ischemic priapism, a urologic emergency. Treatment is prompt corporal aspiration and intracavernosal phenylephrine, along with supportive sickle cell care.
- ACorrect. More than 95% of priapism in sickle cell disease is ischemic (low-flow). It is a true emergency, and first-line treatment is aspiration and irrigation with intracavernosal phenylephrine, with a surgical shunt if these fail.
- BIncorrect. Nonischemic priapism is usually painless and follows arterial injury. A painful, rigid erection in a patient with sickle cell disease points to ischemic priapism, which needs prompt intervention.
- CIncorrect. Supportive sickle cell measures are added to aspiration and phenylephrine; they do not replace them. Waiting for urology risks permanent erectile dysfunction.
- DIncorrect. Ischemic changes begin around 6 hours and structural changes around 14 hours. Permanent damage occurs after 24 hours, so a delayed referral is unsafe.
Question 4
Severe colicky flank pain radiating to the groin with hematuria suggests:
- ARenal calculi
- BAppendicitis
- CTesticular torsion
- DPyloric stenosis
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A) Renal calculi
- ACorrect. Treat pain and strain the urine.
- BIncorrect. This doesn't cause hematuria typically.
- CIncorrect. This involves the scrotum.
- DIncorrect. This affects infants.
Question 5
A patient at 16 weeks' gestation has vaginal bleeding after a fall. Her blood type is O-negative and her antibody screen is negative for anti-D. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate to prevent Rh alloimmunization?
- AVitamin K (phytonadione) given intramuscularly to support maternal and fetal clotting
- BRh(D) immune globulin given within 72 hours of the sensitizing event
- CMethylergonovine given intramuscularly to contract the uterus and reduce fetal blood exposure
- DRh(D) immune globulin deferred until delivery, once the newborn's Rh type is confirmed
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B) Rh(D) immune globulin given within 72 hours of the sensitizing event
An unsensitized Rh-negative pregnant patient with a potentially sensitizing event, such as bleeding or abdominal trauma, should receive Rh(D) immune globulin within 72 hours to prevent anti-D alloimmunization.
- AIncorrect. Vitamin K treats coagulopathy, such as from warfarin or vitamin K deficiency. It has no effect on anti-D antibody formation after fetomaternal hemorrhage.
- BCorrect. Bleeding and trauma in pregnancy are potentially sensitizing events. An unsensitized Rh-negative patient (negative antibody screen) should get RhIG within 72 hours. If a large hemorrhage is suspected, a Kleihauer-Betke test can guide extra dosing.
- CIncorrect. Methylergonovine is a uterotonic for postpartum hemorrhage and is not used during an ongoing pregnancy. It does not prevent alloimmunization.
- DIncorrect. A postpartum dose is given if the newborn is Rh-positive, but the current sensitizing event needs its own coverage within 72 hours. Waiting allows anti-D antibodies to form.
Question 6
Severe nausea, bleeding and a uterus larger than expected in early pregnancy may suggest:
- ANormal pregnancy
- BMolar pregnancy
- CEctopic pregnancy
- DPlacenta previa
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B) Molar pregnancy
- AIncorrect. The findings are abnormal.
- BCorrect. hCG is often very high.
- CIncorrect. That usually has a smaller uterus.
- DIncorrect. That occurs later.
Question 7
A patient at 9 weeks' gestation has light vaginal bleeding and mild cramping. Transvaginal ultrasound confirms an intrauterine pregnancy with fetal cardiac activity. On exam the cervical os is closed and no tissue has passed. How should this presentation be classified?
- AIncomplete abortion
- BInevitable abortion
- CMissed abortion
- DThreatened abortion
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D) Threatened abortion
A threatened abortion is vaginal bleeding before 20 weeks with a closed cervical os and a viable intrauterine pregnancy. No tissue has passed, and the pregnancy may continue.
- AIncorrect. In an incomplete abortion, some of the pregnancy tissue has already passed, usually through an open os. Here no tissue has passed and the os is closed.
- BIncorrect. An inevitable abortion means the loss cannot be stopped, usually with a dilated cervix. Here the os is closed.
- CIncorrect. In a missed abortion, the pregnancy has failed but the tissue stays in the uterus. Here fetal cardiac activity shows the pregnancy is still viable.
- DCorrect. Bleeding before 20 weeks with a closed os, no tissue passed, and a viable intrauterine pregnancy is a threatened abortion. Many of these pregnancies continue normally.
Question 8
A patient 10 days after delivery has severe headache and high BP. What should the nurse suspect?
- APostpartum preeclampsia
- BNormal postpartum fatigue
- CMigraine only
- DMastitis
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A) Postpartum preeclampsia
- ACorrect. It can occur up to about 6 weeks after delivery.
- BIncorrect. The BP and headache are red flags.
- CIncorrect. Preeclampsia must be ruled out.
- DIncorrect. That causes breast pain and fever.
Question 9
A patient having a trial of labor after a prior cesarean delivery suddenly reports a severe, tearing abdominal pain. The fetal heart rate drops to 70/min. On exam, the fetal presenting part was at +1 station earlier and now can't be felt. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
- APlacental abruption
- BPlacenta previa
- CUmbilical cord prolapse
- DUterine rupture
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D) Uterine rupture
Sudden tearing pain, fetal bradycardia, and loss of fetal station during a trial of labor after cesarean suggest uterine rupture, which needs an emergency cesarean by laparotomy. Previa causes painless bleeding, and abruption and cord prolapse don't cause loss of station.
- AIncorrect. Abruption can cause painful bleeding and fetal distress, but it is more linked to tetanic uterine activity. It does not make the presenting part move back up. Loss of station in a scarred uterus points to rupture.
- BIncorrect. Placenta previa typically causes painless vaginal bleeding. It does not cause sudden tearing pain or loss of fetal station.
- CIncorrect. Cord prolapse can cause sudden fetal bradycardia, but the cord is seen or felt at or through the cervix. It does not cause tearing abdominal pain or make the presenting part move away from the pelvis.
- DCorrect. In a patient with a prior uterine incision, sudden severe 'ripping' pain, fetal bradycardia (the most common FHR abnormality), and loss of fetal station are classic signs of uterine rupture. It needs an emergency laparotomy for delivery and hemorrhage control.
Question 10
A patient several days after a cesarean has fever and foul-smelling lochia. This suggests:
- ANormal recovery
- BPostpartum endometritis
- CMastitis
- DUrinary retention
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B) Postpartum endometritis
- AIncorrect. Fever and odor are abnormal.
- BCorrect. It needs antibiotics.
- CIncorrect. The symptoms point to the uterus.
- DIncorrect. The symptoms point to the uterus.
Genitourinary, Gynecology, and Obstetrical Emergencies: FAQs
How much of the CEN exam is Genitourinary, Gynecology, and Obstetrical Emergencies?
Genitourinary, Gynecology, and Obstetrical Emergencies is 7% of the CEN exam by the official exam guide's weighting, which on a 175-question form works out to roughly 12 questions. The real exam's exact split varies by form.
What does the Genitourinary, Gynecology, and Obstetrical Emergencies domain cover?
Emergencies of the urinary and reproductive systems and of pregnancy, including obstetric complications, emergency delivery and renal problems.
How should I study Genitourinary, Gynecology, and Obstetrical Emergencies for CEN?
Focus on obstetric red flags and the drug used for each, such as magnesium sulphate for eclampsia, since these questions are high-stakes and predictable.
Where can I practise more Genitourinary, Gynecology, and Obstetrical Emergencies questions?
This page has 10 free Genitourinary, Gynecology, and Obstetrical Emergencies questions with answers. The ExamWize CEN question bank has 41 questions in this domain. Every practice exam result breaks your score down by domain, and Review Mode re-drills the questions you missed.
Other CEN topics
- Cardiovascular Emergencies12% of the exam
- Respiratory Emergencies11% of the exam
- Neurological Emergencies11% of the exam
- Gastrointestinal Emergencies9% of the exam
- Mental Health Emergencies9% of the exam
- Medical Emergencies10% of the exam
- Musculoskeletal and Wound Emergencies7% of the exam
- Head, Eye, Ear, Nose, Throat Emergencies7% of the exam
- Environment and Toxicology Emergencies, and Communicable Diseases9% of the exam
- Professional Issues8% of the exam
Also: 15 free questions across all topics, the CEN cheat sheet and the study guide.
Get Genitourinary, Gynecology, and Obstetrical Emergencies exam-ready
The full CEN bank has 41 Genitourinary, Gynecology, and Obstetrical Emergencies questions. Timed practice exams match the real exam's length and domain weights, every result shows your score per domain, and Review Mode re-drills the questions you missed.
Not affiliated with BCEN; questions are original, written from the official exam outline, and never copied from the real exam.