Emergency and Abnormal Procedures practice questions

Answer: B) 10 days

• AIncorrect. It's 10 days.
• BCorrect. 49 CFR 830.15.
• CIncorrect. It's 10 days.
• DIncorrect. It's 10 days.

Answer: A) An overweight landing inspection done under the manufacturer's maintenance instructions in the operator's maintenance program

Landing above the maximum landing weight is an unscheduled high-load event. Before the airplane returns to service, it needs an overweight landing inspection under the manufacturer's maintenance instructions.

• ACorrect. An overweight landing is a high-load event, and the airplane's structural margins are not fully available above landing weight. Maintenance programs call for an unscheduled structural inspection that follows the manufacturer's procedures.
• BIncorrect. Special flight permits for overweight operation are for flying above the maximum certificated takeoff weight (for example, ferrying with extra fuel). They do not apply to returning an airplane to service after an overweight landing.
• CIncorrect. Landing heavy does not change the airplane's empty weight or empty-weight CG. The concern is possible structural damage, which an inspection addresses.
• DIncorrect. A smooth touchdown above maximum landing weight can still overstress the landing gear and structure. Overweight landings are treated as their own inspection event, separate from hard landings.

Answer: A) Every person aboard, crew and passengers, so responders can plan the rescue and account for each occupant

Souls on board is the total number of people on the aircraft, crew and passengers. ATC gets it from the crew and passes it to rescue services so they can plan the response and account for every occupant.

• ACorrect. Souls on board means everyone on the aircraft. Responders use the number to size the rescue and medical response and to confirm that every occupant has been accounted for.
• BIncorrect. The figure covers every occupant, not just revenue passengers, and it is used for rescue planning, not load-sheet reconciliation.
• CIncorrect. Crew members are included. Responders need the total count of people aboard, and ATC does not get it from the flight plan.
• DIncorrect. Priority comes from declaring the emergency, not from the number of people aboard. The count is passed on so rescuers can plan their response and account for everyone.

Answer: D) An INREQ (information request) to facilities along the route

The FAA overdue-aircraft sequence is a communications search, then a QALQ, then an INREQ (on a negative QALQ reply or 30 minutes overdue, whichever comes first), then an ALNOT if the aircraft is still not located.

• AIncorrect. In the normal sequence, the ALNOT follows the INREQ stage. It is sent when INREQ replies are negative or the aircraft is still not located within one hour after the INREQ. A facility goes straight to the ALNOT only in special cases, such as a reliable report that the aircraft is at least one hour late, which does not apply here.
• BIncorrect. The QALQ step is complete. A negative reply moves the search to the next stage instead of repeating the query.
• CIncorrect. NOTAMs report hazards and changes to facilities or airspace. They are not a step in the overdue-aircraft message sequence.
• DCorrect. An INREQ is transmitted when the QALQ reply is negative or the aircraft has not been located within 30 minutes after becoming overdue, whichever occurs first. Here the negative QALQ reply comes first.

Answer: B) Declare an emergency and take any action considered necessary under the circumstances

Under 14 CFR 121.557(b), a dispatcher who cannot communicate with the pilot during an emergency that requires an immediate decision shall declare an emergency and take any action considered necessary. The dispatcher must then keep ATC and dispatch centers fully informed.

• AIncorrect. Section 121.557(b) specifically gives the dispatcher authority to declare an emergency when communication with the pilot is not possible.
• BCorrect. If the dispatcher cannot communicate with the pilot, 121.557(b) says the dispatcher shall declare an emergency and take any action considered necessary under the circumstances.
• CIncorrect. The rule puts the duty on the dispatcher. The operations manager is involved only later, as the channel for the written report.
• DIncorrect. The dispatcher must keep ATC fully informed, but the dispatcher is the one who declares the emergency and acts. ATC does not decide for the certificate holder.

Answer: A) Immediately advise the pilot in command of all pertinent information available

Under 49 CFR 1544.303, a specific and credible threat against an airborne flight requires immediate notification of the ground and in-flight security coordinators and of the PIC, followed by a security inspection after the next landing.

• ACorrect. When the threatened aircraft is in flight, 49 CFR 1544.303(b) requires the operator to immediately advise the PIC of all pertinent information. The operator must also notify the ground and in-flight security coordinators.
• BIncorrect. Once a specific and credible threat is received, notification is immediate. The operator does not wait for TSA to confirm the threat before telling the crew.
• CIncorrect. The operator must notify TSA, but it must also notify its own security coordinators directly and advise the PIC itself. Crew notification is not handed off to TSA.
• DIncorrect. The rule requires the in-flight security coordinator to notify all crewmembers of the threat. Keeping it from the crew is not allowed. The security inspection is done after the next landing.

Answer: A) 10 days after returning home

• ACorrect. Through the operations manager (121.557).
• BIncorrect. It's 10 days after returning to home base.
• CIncorrect. It's 10 days after returning to home base.
• DIncorrect. The report is required.

Answer: D) 406 MHz

• AIncorrect. That's ADS-B/transponder.
• BIncorrect. 406 MHz is the primary frequency.
• CIncorrect. It's 406 MHz.
• DCorrect. Detected by satellites.

Answer: A) Land at the nearest suitable airport as soon as possible, even if this means an overweight landing

An engine fire that can't be put out calls for landing as soon as possible. 14 CFR 121.565(a) also requires landing a twin at the nearest suitable airport after an engine shutdown, even if the landing is overweight.

• ACorrect. A fire that won't go out is an immediate threat to the airplane. 14 CFR 121.565(a) also requires landing at the nearest suitable airport after an engine shutdown, and a twin doesn't qualify for the three-engine exception in 121.565(b).
• BIncorrect. On a twin with an engine shut down, 121.565 requires landing at the nearest suitable airport. An ongoing fire makes delay even more dangerous, so convenience at the destination doesn't matter.
• CIncorrect. With an uncontrolled fire, waiting to burn off fuel risks losing the airplane. An overweight landing is an accepted risk in this emergency.
• DIncorrect. The rule calls for the nearest suitable airport, not the nearest maintenance base. Picking an airport for maintenance reasons would mean flying longer with an active fire.

Answer: A) Advise the pilot in command of the emergency, find out the PIC's decision, and have that decision recorded

Under 14 CFR 121.557(b), the dispatcher must advise the PIC of the emergency, find out the PIC's decision, and have it recorded. The dispatcher declares an emergency only if unable to communicate with the pilot.

• ACorrect. Section 121.557(b) requires the dispatcher to advise the PIC of the emergency, find out the PIC's decision, and have the decision recorded.
• BIncorrect. In an emergency that requires an immediate decision, the PIC may take any action they consider necessary (121.557(a)). The dispatcher supports and records the PIC's decision rather than imposing one.
• CIncorrect. Under 121.557(b), the dispatcher declares an emergency only if unable to communicate with the pilot.
• DIncorrect. Under 121.557(c), a dispatcher who declared the emergency must send the written report through the certificate holder's operations manager to the Administrator within 10 days.