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Aircraft Dispatcher (ADX) practice questions with answers

15 free practice questions for the Aircraft Dispatcher (ADX) Knowledge Test, spread across the exam's topics. Try each one, then open the answer to see why every option is right or wrong.

  1. Question 1 · Regulations

    Under 14 CFR 121.711, which communication record must a certificate holder conducting domestic or flag operations keep?

    • AEach en route communication between the certificate holder and its pilots, kept for at least 30 days
    • BEach en route communication between the certificate holder and its pilots, kept for at least 3 months
    • CEach communication between its pilots and ATC facilities, kept for at least 30 days
    • DEach communication with its pilots from takeoff until landing, kept for at least 30 days
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Each en route communication between the certificate holder and its pilots, kept for at least 30 days

    14 CFR 121.711 requires domestic and flag operators to record each en route (gate-to-gate) communication with their pilots, including date, time, flight, position and a narrative, and to keep the records for at least 30 days.

    • ACorrect. Section 121.711 requires each en route communication between the certificate holder and its pilots to be recorded, and the records must be kept for at least 30 days.
    • BIncorrect. The right communications are listed, but the retention period is wrong. The rule requires at least 30 days, not 3 months.
    • CIncorrect. The rule covers communications between the certificate holder and its pilots. It does not cover pilot communications with ATC.
    • DIncorrect. For this section, en route means from pushback at the departure gate until the aircraft reaches the arrival gate, not takeoff to landing.
  2. Question 2 · Regulations

    Under 14 CFR 121.585, what minimum age applies to passengers seated in exit rows?

    • ANo minimum age
    • B10 years old
    • C21 years old
    • D15 years old
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D) 15 years old

    • AIncorrect. A minimum applies.
    • BIncorrect. The minimum is 15.
    • CIncorrect. The minimum is 15.
    • DCorrect. They must also be willing and able to assist.
  3. Question 3 · Regulations

    Under 14 CFR 121.651, a pilot has properly begun the final approach segment of an instrument approach and then receives a later weather report showing conditions below minimums. What may the pilot do?

    • AContinue the approach to DA/DH or MDA, and land only if the regulation's landing conditions are then met
    • BDiscontinue the approach at once and execute the published missed approach from the current position
    • CContinue below DA/DH or MDA to the runway as long as the aircraft remains on a stabilized approach
    • DContinue to DA/DH or MDA only if the dispatcher first confirms the new report by company radio
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Continue the approach to DA/DH or MDA, and land only if the regulation's landing conditions are then met

    14 CFR 121.651(c) lets a pilot already on the final approach segment continue to DA/DH or MDA after receiving a below-minimum report. Descending below that point requires meeting the regulation's position and flight visibility conditions.

    • ACorrect. 121.651(c) allows a pilot who has begun the final approach segment under 121.651(b) and then receives a below-minimum report to continue the approach to DA/DH or MDA. Landing then requires that the aircraft be continuously in a position to land at a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers, and that flight visibility be at least the visibility the approach procedure requires.
    • BIncorrect. The rule does not require an immediate missed approach. A pilot who has properly begun the final approach segment may continue to DA/DH or MDA.
    • CIncorrect. Being on a stabilized approach does not allow descent below DA/DH or MDA. The required visual references and flight visibility conditions must be met.
    • DIncorrect. 121.651(c) sets no requirement for the dispatcher to confirm the report. The rule lets the pilot continue to DA/DH or MDA on their own authority.
  4. Question 4 · Meteorology and Weather Hazards

    Flying from high to low pressure without resetting the altimeter, how does it read?

    • AExactly the actual altitude
    • BLower than the actual altitude
    • CHigher than the actual altitude
    • DZero
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C) Higher than the actual altitude

    • AIncorrect. It reads higher.
    • BIncorrect. It reads higher.
    • CCorrect. "High to low, look out below."
    • DIncorrect. It reads higher.
  5. Question 5 · Meteorology and Weather Hazards

    The departure airport's METAR reports FZRA. What does this tell the dispatcher about the vertical temperature profile?

    • AAn above-freezing layer exists aloft, over a subfreezing layer near the surface
    • BTemperatures are below freezing everywhere from the surface up to the cloud tops
    • CIce pellets aloft are melting completely just before they reach the ground
    • DA deep above-freezing layer extends from the cloud base all the way to the surface
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) An above-freezing layer exists aloft, over a subfreezing layer near the surface

    Freezing rain shows a temperature inversion: warm air above freezing aloft over subfreezing air near the surface. Rain falling from the warm layer becomes supercooled and freezes on contact.

    • ACorrect. Freezing rain needs a temperature inversion. Rain from the warm layer aloft falls into subfreezing air near the ground, becomes supercooled, and freezes on contact.
    • BIncorrect. With no above-freezing layer, precipitation would usually reach the ground as snow, not liquid rain that freezes on impact.
    • CIncorrect. Precipitation that melts completely near the ground arrives as ordinary rain. Freezing rain means the surface layer is below freezing.
    • DIncorrect. If air is above freezing down to the surface, the result is plain rain. Freezing rain requires subfreezing air near the ground.
  6. Question 6 · Weather Analysis and Forecasts

    Weather radar imagery mainly depicts:

    • ACloud tops of all clouds
    • BPrecipitation
    • CClear air turbulence
    • DFog layers
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B) Precipitation

    • AIncorrect. Radar shows precipitation.
    • BCorrect. Not clouds or turbulence directly.
    • CIncorrect. Radar shows precipitation.
    • DIncorrect. Radar shows precipitation.
  7. Question 7 · Weather Analysis and Forecasts

    What do radar echo tops show?

    • AThe lowest cloud base reported at an airport by its automated sensors
    • BThe highest altitude of detected precipitation
    • CThe top of the tropopause
    • DWind speed at the surface
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B) The highest altitude of detected precipitation

    • AIncorrect. That's a ceiling.
    • BCorrect. They help estimate storm strength.
    • CIncorrect. That's a different chart.
    • DIncorrect. It's a precipitation height.
  8. Question 8 · Navigation

    What is 0300Z on January 1 in Pacific Standard Time?

    • A1900 on December 31
    • B1100 on January 1
    • C2200 on December 31
    • D0300 on January 1
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) 1900 on December 31

    • ACorrect. PST is UTC minus 8.
    • BIncorrect. That adds 8 hours.
    • CIncorrect. That uses UTC minus 5.
    • DIncorrect. Conversion is needed.
  9. Question 9 · Navigation

    Why are magnetic variation values updated periodically?

    • AThe magnetic poles drift over time
    • BThe true north pole moves each year
    • CEarth's rotation speed changes daily
    • DVOR stations move to new locations
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) The magnetic poles drift over time

    • ACorrect. Charts and runway numbers may change.
    • BIncorrect. Magnetic poles drift.
    • CIncorrect. Pole drift is the cause.
    • DIncorrect. Pole drift is the cause.
  10. Question 10 · Aircraft Systems, Performance and Weight and Balance

    Under a Part 121 approved ground deicing/anti-icing program, when is a pretakeoff contamination check used?

    • AWhen the maximum holdover time has been exceeded and the airplane is to take off without being deiced again
    • BWhile the airplane is still within its holdover time, as a check of the wings or representative surfaces
    • CAt the gate before deicing begins, so the dispatcher can confirm the release before the flight leaves
    • DRight after the final fluid application, to set the start time used in the holdover timetable
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) When the maximum holdover time has been exceeded and the airplane is to take off without being deiced again

    A pretakeoff contamination check is one way to allow takeoff after the maximum holdover time has been exceeded. It must be done within five minutes before takeoff, normally from outside the aircraft (14 CFR 121.629(c)(3)–(4)).

    • ACorrect. Under 14 CFR 121.629(c)(3), takeoff after the maximum holdover time has been exceeded is allowed only after a pretakeoff contamination check, an approved alternate procedure, or redeicing with a new holdover time. The check must be done within five minutes before beginning takeoff and, unless the program says otherwise, from outside the aircraft.
    • BIncorrect. This describes the pretakeoff check, which 121.629(c)(4) defines as a check of the wings or representative surfaces for frost, ice, or snow done within the holdover time.
    • CIncorrect. The pretakeoff contamination check must be done within five minutes before beginning takeoff, not at the gate before deicing.
    • DIncorrect. Holdover time begins when the final application of deicing/anti-icing fluid starts. A pretakeoff contamination check does not set that time; it is used after the holdover time has been exceeded.
  11. Question 11 · Aircraft Systems, Performance and Weight and Balance

    What is the repair interval for an MEL Category B item?

    • AAs stated in the remarks
    • B10 consecutive calendar days
    • C120 consecutive calendar days
    • D3 consecutive calendar days
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D) 3 consecutive calendar days

    • AIncorrect. That's Category A.
    • BIncorrect. That's Category C.
    • CIncorrect. That's Category D.
    • DCorrect. The day of discovery isn't counted.
  12. Question 12 · Communications

    Detailed airport information such as runways and services is found in the:

    • AWinds aloft forecast
    • BChart Supplement
    • CSurface analysis chart
    • DAircraft flight manual
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B) Chart Supplement

    • AIncorrect. It's the Chart Supplement.
    • BCorrect. Formerly the Airport/Facility Directory.
    • CIncorrect. It's the Chart Supplement.
    • DIncorrect. It's the Chart Supplement.
  13. Question 13 · Air Traffic Control

    An IFR flight plan is usually filed at least how far before departure?

    • A5 minutes
    • B30 minutes
    • C24 hours
    • DAfter takeoff
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B) 30 minutes

    • AIncorrect. File at least 30 minutes ahead.
    • BCorrect. Per the AIM recommendation.
    • CIncorrect. File at least 30 minutes ahead.
    • DIncorrect. File at least 30 minutes ahead.
  14. Question 14 · Emergency and Abnormal Procedures

    During a domestic operation, the flight crew reports a serious in-flight medical emergency and plans to divert. Which action best reflects the aircraft dispatcher's role?

    • ASelect the diversion airport and require the crew to proceed there
    • BProvide suitable airports with weather, runway and medical-service information
    • CHave the crew continue to destination until a physician on board agrees to divert
    • DObtain the diversion clearance from ATC so the crew can avoid radio calls
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B) Provide suitable airports with weather, runway and medical-service information

    In an emergency the PIC has final authority (14 CFR 121.557). The dispatcher helps most by giving the crew information on suitable diversion airports, including weather, runways and medical services, and by coordinating on the ground.

    • AIncorrect. Under 14 CFR 121.557, the pilot in command may take any action he considers necessary in an emergency. The dispatcher advises but does not override the PIC's diversion decision.
    • BCorrect. The dispatcher supports the PIC's decision by finding suitable diversion airports and giving the crew current weather, runway, field conditions and ground medical services, while coordinating on the ground.
    • CIncorrect. A diversion does not depend on a medical professional on board agreeing to it. Delaying for that reason works against the PIC's emergency authority and against passenger safety.
    • DIncorrect. The flight crew gets clearances directly from ATC. The dispatcher supports with information and coordination; it does not take over ATC communication.
  15. Question 15 · Practical Dispatch Applications

    In the threat and error management (TEM) model used for Line Operations Safety Audits, which description fits an undesired aircraft state?

    • AAn event outside the crew's influence, such as adverse weather or an ATC reroute, that adds operational complexity
    • BA crew action or inaction that departs from crew or organizational intentions, such as entering a wrong altitude
    • CA crew-induced deviation in aircraft position, speed, attitude or configuration that reduces safety margins
    • DAn occurrence with serious injury or substantial aircraft damage that must be reported to the NTSB
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C) A crew-induced deviation in aircraft position, speed, attitude or configuration that reduces safety margins

    In TEM, threats and errors that are mismanaged can produce an undesired aircraft state. This is a crew-induced deviation in position, speed, attitude or configuration that reduces safety margins, and the crew must recover from it. LOSA collects these states as accident and incident precursors.

    • AIncorrect. This describes a threat: an external event or condition that the crew must manage. A mismanaged threat can lead to an undesired aircraft state, but the threat is not the state itself.
    • BIncorrect. This describes an error. In TEM, a mismanaged error can lead to an undesired aircraft state, but the two are separate parts of the model.
    • CCorrect. FAA TEM guidance describes undesired aircraft states as crew-induced divergences, such as position or speed deviations or wrong configurations, that reduce margins of safety. The crew's main task is to recover from them.
    • DIncorrect. This describes an accident. An undesired aircraft state is a precursor to incidents and accidents, and the crew can still recover from it.

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Original questions written from the official exam outline. Not affiliated with FAA; never copied from the real exam.