Skip to main content

VTNE · 13% of the exam

Pharmacy and Pharmacology practice questions

10 free Pharmacy and Pharmacology questions for the Veterinary Technician National Examination (VTNE) exam, each with the correct answer and an explanation for every option.

What this domain covers

How drugs are used and handled in practice: drug classes and their actions, dose and fluid calculations, dispensing, storage and the rules for controlled substances.

Exam weight
13%
On a real exam
≈ 22 questions
In our bank
77 questions

Topics that come up most

  • Dose, concentration and infusion-rate calculations
  • Drug classes, actions and adverse effects
  • Routes of administration
  • Controlled-substance logs and storage
  • Prescription labelling and dispensing to clients

How to study it

Work a few dose calculations every day and write the units at each step from mg/kg to mL. The same method covers infusion and fluid-rate questions.

Sample Pharmacy and Pharmacology questions

Try each one before opening the answer. Original questions written to the official exam objectives.

  1. Question 1

    Why is sucralfate usually given separately from other oral medications?

    • AIt must be given with a fatty meal to activate it
    • BIt can bind other drugs in the GI tract and reduce their absorption
    • CIt is absorbed quickly and competes with other drugs for renal excretion
    • DIt must be mixed with an antibiotic to coat ulcers effectively
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B) It can bind other drugs in the GI tract and reduce their absorption

    Sucralfate acts locally in the GI tract and can bind other oral drugs, reducing their absorption. Other medications are therefore usually given about 2 hours before sucralfate.

    • AIncorrect. Sucralfate is given on an empty stomach (about 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals). It is not activated by fat, and this does not explain why other drugs are given separately.
    • BCorrect. Sucralfate binds drugs such as fluoroquinolones and digoxin in the gut and lowers how much is absorbed. Giving the other drug about 2 hours before sucralfate avoids the interaction.
    • CIncorrect. Very little sucralfate is absorbed from the GI tract. It works locally on the mucosa, so its interactions happen in the gut, not through competition for kidney excretion.
    • DIncorrect. Sucralfate coats ulcers on its own. Mixing it with antibiotics such as fluoroquinolones would actually cut their absorption.
  2. Question 2

    Desoxycorticosterone pivalate (DOCP) is used in dogs to treat which condition?

    • AHypoadrenocorticism (Addison's disease)
    • BHyperadrenocorticism (Cushing's disease)
    • CHyperthyroidism
    • DDiabetes insipidus
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Hypoadrenocorticism (Addison's disease)

    DOCP is a mineralocorticoid used to replace aldosterone in dogs with primary hypoadrenocorticism (Addison's disease). Most patients also need a glucocorticoid such as prednisone.

    • ACorrect. DOCP is a long-acting injectable mineralocorticoid that replaces the missing aldosterone in primary hypoadrenocorticism. It has no glucocorticoid activity, so dogs that also lack glucocorticoids usually need prednisone or prednisolone as well.
    • BIncorrect. Cushing's disease involves too much cortisol and is treated with drugs that lower cortisol, such as trilostane. DOCP is a mineralocorticoid replacement and has no role in treating Cushing's.
    • CIncorrect. Hyperthyroidism, mainly a feline disease, is managed with methimazole, radioiodine, surgery or diet, not with a mineralocorticoid.
    • DIncorrect. Central diabetes insipidus is treated with desmopressin (DDAVP), a synthetic ADH analog. DOCP replaces aldosterone, not ADH.
  3. Question 3

    A dog is actively seizing and the veterinarian orders diazepam. Why is diazepam given IV (or rectally) rather than IM in this situation?

    • AIM absorption of diazepam is slow and erratic, and the injection is painful
    • BDiazepam must be activated by the liver, which happens only after IV dosing
    • CDiazepam is highly water-soluble and diffuses out of muscle too quickly
    • DIM diazepam causes marked hypotension that the IV route avoids
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) IM absorption of diazepam is slow and erratic, and the injection is painful

    Diazepam is absorbed slowly and unpredictably from muscle, and IM injection is painful, so it is given IV or rectally for seizures. Midazolam is the benzodiazepine of choice when the IM or intranasal route is needed.

    • ACorrect. Diazepam is lipophilic and poorly water-soluble, and it comes in a propylene glycol vehicle. Absorption from muscle is slow and unpredictable, and the injection is painful. When an IM benzodiazepine is needed, midazolam is preferred because it is absorbed rapidly and reliably.
    • BIncorrect. Diazepam is active itself; it does not need hepatic activation. Its active metabolites form after any route, so route-dependent activation is not why IM is avoided.
    • CIncorrect. Diazepam is poorly water-soluble and lipophilic. Its problem after IM injection is slow, erratic absorption, not absorption that is too fast.
    • DIncorrect. Cardiovascular effects such as hypotension are more likely with rapid IV injection, partly because of the propylene glycol vehicle. Hypotension is not the reason IM dosing is avoided.
  4. Question 4

    Why is oral prednisolone usually chosen instead of oral prednisone for cats?

    • ACats eliminate prednisolone slowly, so lower doses are needed
    • BCats convert prednisone to its active form inefficiently
    • CPrednisolone lacks the mineralocorticoid effects of prednisone
    • DPrednisone causes Heinz body anemia when given to cats
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B) Cats convert prednisone to its active form inefficiently

    Prednisone must be converted in the liver to active prednisolone, and cats do this inefficiently. Giving prednisolone directly produces more reliable drug levels.

    • AIncorrect. Slower elimination is not the reason. Cats prefer prednisolone because they activate prednisone poorly.
    • BCorrect. Prednisone is a prodrug that the liver converts to prednisolone. Cats do this poorly, so giving prednisolone, which is already active, produces much higher drug levels.
    • CIncorrect. Both drugs have similar, modest mineralocorticoid activity, so this does not explain the preference.
    • DIncorrect. Heinz body anemia in cats is linked to oxidant toxins such as acetaminophen and onions, not prednisone.
  5. Question 5

    A client asks how to store their dog's opened vial of insulin at home. Which instruction is consistent with FDA insulin storage guidance?

    • AKeep it in the freezer between doses so the insulin keeps its potency longer
    • BKeep it in the refrigerator at about 36–46°F, away from the freezer section and sunlight
    • CKeep it near a warm spot such as an appliance so it is at body temperature for injection
    • DThrow the vial away if it is ever outside the refrigerator for even a few minutes
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B) Keep it in the refrigerator at about 36–46°F, away from the freezer section and sunlight

    Store insulin in the refrigerator (about 36–46°F), never freeze it, and keep it away from heat and sunlight. Product labels set the mixing method and how long an opened vial can be used.

    • AIncorrect. FDA guidance says not to use insulin that has been frozen. Freezing damages the protein and makes it less effective.
    • BCorrect. FDA recommends refrigerating insulin at about 36–46°F and keeping it away from direct heat and sunlight. Freezing makes it unusable. Mix the vial exactly as the product label directs, because labels differ.
    • CIncorrect. FDA advises keeping insulin away from direct heat. Extreme heat makes insulin less effective, and the damage grows with longer exposure.
    • DIncorrect. FDA guidance says many insulins can stay unrefrigerated at 59–86°F for a set period (up to 28 days for many products). A short time out of the refrigerator does not by itself mean the vial must be thrown away. Follow the product label.
  6. Question 6

    How many mg per mL are in 0.5% bupivacaine?

    • A5 mg/mL
    • B0.5 mg/mL
    • C50 mg/mL
    • D500 mg/mL
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) 5 mg/mL

    • ACorrect. A 1% solution is 10 mg/mL.
    • BIncorrect. That's 0.05%.
    • CIncorrect. That's 5%.
    • DIncorrect. That's 50%.
  7. Question 7

    An owner gives their cat one acetaminophen tablet for suspected pain. Which feature of feline drug metabolism chiefly explains why acetaminophen is so dangerous to cats?

    • ADeficient glucuronidation, which shunts more drug toward the toxic metabolite NAPQI
    • BVery rapid renal excretion that leaves too little drug for effective analgesia
    • CAbsence of cyclooxygenase enzymes, so the drug binds red cell membranes instead
    • DLack of hepatic cytochrome P450 activity, so unchanged drug accumulates in plasma
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Deficient glucuronidation, which shunts more drug toward the toxic metabolite NAPQI

    Cats glucuronidate acetaminophen poorly, so more of it becomes NAPQI. Once glutathione runs out, NAPQI causes methemoglobinemia, Heinz body anemia and liver damage, even at small doses.

    • ACorrect. Cats have very low glucuronyl transferase activity and limited sulfation capacity. More acetaminophen is oxidized to NAPQI, which uses up glutathione and oxidizes hemoglobin. The result is methemoglobinemia, Heinz body hemolytic anemia and liver injury.
    • BIncorrect. The problem is toxicity, not lack of effect. Cats clear acetaminophen poorly, and even small doses can be toxic or fatal.
    • CIncorrect. Cats do have cyclooxygenase enzymes. The red cell damage comes from oxidation of hemoglobin by NAPQI, not from the drug binding red cell membranes.
    • DIncorrect. Cytochrome P450 oxidation is the pathway that produces toxic NAPQI. The feline deficit is in glucuronide conjugation, not in P450 activity.
  8. Question 8

    A veterinarian dispenses a drug to a client for extralabel use in a dog. Under FDA's extralabel-use labeling rule (21 CFR 530.12), which pair of items must the labeling include?

    • AThe prescribing veterinarian's name and address and the established name of the drug
    • BThe veterinarian's DEA registration number and the lot number of the dispensed drug
    • CThe patient's diagnosis and the reason the drug is being used in an extralabel manner
    • DThe drug's National Drug Code number and the client's home telephone number
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) The prescribing veterinarian's name and address and the established name of the drug

    Under 21 CFR 530.12, labeling for an extralabel-use drug must include the prescribing veterinarian's name and address, the established drug name, directions for use, cautionary statements, and any withdrawal times. Record items such as the diagnosis are not required on the label.

    • ACorrect. 21 CFR 530.12 requires the prescribing veterinarian's name and address and the established name of the drug or of each active ingredient. It also requires directions for use, cautionary statements, and, for food animals, withdrawal, withholding, or discard times.
    • BIncorrect. Neither item is among the labeling elements listed in 21 CFR 530.12. The DEA number relates to controlled substance registration and records, not this label rule.
    • CIncorrect. The diagnosis and the reason for extralabel use belong in the medical record. They are not required labeling elements under 21 CFR 530.12.
    • DIncorrect. 21 CFR 530.12 does not list the NDC or the client's phone number. It requires the drug's established name and the prescriber's name and address.
  9. Question 9

    Fluoxetine is used in dogs for:

    • ABacterial skin and ear infections
    • BFlea control
    • CHeart failure
    • DBehavior problems such as separation anxiety
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D) Behavior problems such as separation anxiety

    • AIncorrect. It isn't an antibiotic.
    • BIncorrect. It isn't a parasiticide.
    • CIncorrect. It isn't a heart drug.
    • DCorrect. It's an SSRI.
  10. Question 10

    Amoxicillin belongs to which antibiotic class?

    • APenicillins
    • BTetracyclines
    • CFluoroquinolones
    • DAminoglycosides
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Penicillins

    • ACorrect. A beta-lactam antibiotic.
    • BIncorrect. That's doxycycline and similar.
    • CIncorrect. That's enrofloxacin and similar.
    • DIncorrect. That's gentamicin and similar.

Pharmacy and Pharmacology: FAQs

How much of the VTNE exam is Pharmacy and Pharmacology?

Pharmacy and Pharmacology is 13% of the VTNE exam by the official exam guide's weighting, which on a 170-question form works out to roughly 22 questions. The real exam's exact split varies by form.

What does the Pharmacy and Pharmacology domain cover?

How drugs are used and handled in practice: drug classes and their actions, dose and fluid calculations, dispensing, storage and the rules for controlled substances.

How should I study Pharmacy and Pharmacology for VTNE?

Work a few dose calculations every day and write the units at each step from mg/kg to mL. The same method covers infusion and fluid-rate questions.

Where can I practise more Pharmacy and Pharmacology questions?

This page has 10 free Pharmacy and Pharmacology questions with answers. The ExamWize VTNE question bank has 77 questions in this domain. Every practice exam result breaks your score down by domain, and Review Mode re-drills the questions you missed.

Get Pharmacy and Pharmacology exam-ready

The full VTNE bank has 77 Pharmacy and Pharmacology questions. Timed practice exams match the real exam's length and domain weights, every result shows your score per domain, and Review Mode re-drills the questions you missed.

Not affiliated with AAVSB; questions are original, written from the official exam outline, and never copied from the real exam.