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VTNE · 9% of the exam

Laboratory Procedures practice questions

10 free Laboratory Procedures questions for the Veterinary Technician National Examination (VTNE) exam, each with the correct answer and an explanation for every option.

What this domain covers

Collecting, handling and running samples: haematology, biochemistry, urinalysis, parasitology, cytology and microbiology, plus quality control.

Exam weight
9%
On a real exam
≈ 15 questions
In our bank
55 questions

Topics that come up most

  • Sample collection, tubes and handling
  • Blood smears and cell identification
  • Urinalysis and urine sediment
  • Parasite identification and faecal tests
  • Quality control and analyser errors

How to study it

Pair each tube colour with its anticoagulant and the tests it suits, and learn the common parasite eggs from images.

Sample Laboratory Procedures questions

Try each one before opening the answer. Original questions written to the official exam objectives.

  1. Question 1

    A canine urine sample is left on the counter at room temperature for several hours before analysis. Which change is most likely?

    • AIncreased bacterial numbers and a higher urine pH
    • BIncreased numbers of casts and red blood cells
    • CDecreased bacterial numbers and a lower urine pH
    • DIncreased glucose concentration on the dipstick
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Increased bacterial numbers and a higher urine pH

    Urine left at room temperature grows bacteria, becomes more alkaline as bacteria break down urea, and loses casts and cells to breakdown. It should be analyzed promptly or refrigerated.

    • ACorrect. Bacteria multiply in urine kept at room temperature. Many of them break down urea into ammonia, which makes the urine more alkaline (higher pH).
    • BIncorrect. With delay, casts dissolve and red and white blood cells break down, especially as the pH rises. The counts in the sediment go down, not up.
    • CIncorrect. Without refrigeration, bacteria grow rather than die off. Their breakdown of urea tends to raise the pH rather than lower it.
    • DIncorrect. Glucose doesn't build up in stored urine. Growing bacteria and cells use it up, so a delay can falsely lower the glucose reading.
  2. Question 2

    A technician is performing a manual 100-cell leukocyte differential on a well-made, stained canine blood smear. In which area of the smear should the cells be counted?

    • AThe monolayer just behind the feathered edge, where red cells are close together but barely overlap
    • BThe thick body near the point where the blood drop was placed, where cell numbers are highest
    • CThe feathered edge itself, where large cells such as monocytes tend to collect
    • DThe long side edges of the smear, where leukocytes are most concentrated
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) The monolayer just behind the feathered edge, where red cells are close together but barely overlap

    Differential counts and cell shape assessment are done in the monolayer, just behind the feathered edge, where cells are evenly spread and not distorted. The feathered edge and side edges are only scanned for platelet clumps and large cells.

    • ACorrect. In the monolayer, cells lie in a single, evenly spread layer and keep their normal shape. This allows accurate identification and a representative count.
    • BIncorrect. In the thick area, cells pile on top of each other and look shrunken, which makes leukocytes hard to identify.
    • CIncorrect. The feathered edge should be scanned for platelet clumps and large or abnormal cells. Cells there are often distorted or broken, and large cells collect there, so counting there skews the differential.
    • DIncorrect. Larger leukocytes tend to gather along the edges, so counting only there would give too many of them. A count from the monolayer is more representative.
  3. Question 3

    Which vaginal cytology pattern best indicates that a bitch is in estrus?

    • AMany red blood cells with a mix of parabasal, intermediate and superficial cells
    • BAbrupt shift to intermediate and parabasal cells with returning neutrophils
    • CMore than 90% superficial and anuclear (cornified) epithelial cells
    • DSparse cells, mainly small parabasal and intermediate cells, few or no RBCs
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C) More than 90% superficial and anuclear (cornified) epithelial cells

    Estrus is identified when more than 90% of vaginal epithelial cells are cornified superficial or anuclear cells. Proestrus shows red cells with mixed epithelial cells, diestrus shows an abrupt return of intermediate and parabasal cells and neutrophils, and anestrus shows sparse non-cornified cells.

    • AIncorrect. This describes proestrus. Red cells are present, and the proportion of superficial cells rises gradually but hasn't yet reached the estrus level.
    • BIncorrect. This describes early diestrus. Superficial cells drop suddenly, intermediate and parabasal cells take over, and neutrophils appear again.
    • CCorrect. High estrogen causes cornification of the vaginal epithelium. An estrus pattern is defined as more than 90% superficial or anuclear squamous cells, with or without red cells. This pattern helps time breeding.
    • DIncorrect. This describes anestrus. The smear has few cells, mainly non-cornified parabasal and intermediate cells.
  4. Question 4

    What does a blood glucose curve help the veterinarian decide?

    • AHow well the insulin dose and timing are working
    • BThe pet's blood type
    • CThe pet's heartworm status
    • DThe pet's kidney function only, based on urine output
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) How well the insulin dose and timing are working

    • ACorrect. Glucose is checked every 1 to 2 hours.
    • BIncorrect. It measures glucose.
    • CIncorrect. It measures glucose.
    • DIncorrect. It measures glucose.
  5. Question 5

    A dog with a normal platelet count is suspected of having von Willebrand disease. Which test is used in the clinic to check platelet function (primary hemostasis)?

    • AProthrombin time (PT)
    • BActivated clotting time (ACT)
    • CBuccal mucosal bleeding time (BMBT)
    • DPlatelet count on a blood smear
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C) Buccal mucosal bleeding time (BMBT)

    BMBT tests primary hemostasis by timing how long a small cut in the inner lip bleeds. It is prolonged with platelet function defects such as von Willebrand disease. PT and ACT test clotting factors, and a platelet count measures number, not function.

    • AIncorrect. PT checks the extrinsic and common clotting-factor pathways (secondary hemostasis). It does not test how well platelets form a plug.
    • BIncorrect. ACT is a screening test for the intrinsic and common clotting-factor pathways (secondary hemostasis). It does not test platelet function.
    • CCorrect. BMBT measures how long a small standard cut in the inner lip takes to stop bleeding. That depends on platelets forming a plug, so the time is prolonged in von Willebrand disease and other platelet function problems.
    • DIncorrect. A platelet count measures how many platelets there are, not how well they work. Dogs with von Willebrand disease often have normal counts.
  6. Question 6

    Which pair of conditions is most commonly associated with eosinophilia on a CBC?

    • AHeartworm infection and flea allergy dermatitis
    • BGlucocorticoid therapy and hyperadrenocorticism
    • CAcute bacterial infection and pyometra
    • DAcute hemorrhage and immune-mediated hemolysis
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Heartworm infection and flea allergy dermatitis

    Eosinophilia is classically caused by parasites (especially helminths) and by allergic or hypersensitivity conditions. Corticosteroid excess lowers eosinophils, and bacterial infection mainly raises neutrophils.

    • ACorrect. Eosinophils typically rise with helminth (parasite) infections and with allergic or hypersensitivity disease. Heartworm infection and flea allergy dermatitis are classic veterinary examples.
    • BIncorrect. Too much corticosteroid, whether given as a drug or produced by the body, causes a stress leukogram. That pattern lowers eosinophils (eosinopenia) rather than raising them.
    • CIncorrect. Bacterial and pus-forming conditions such as pyometra mainly cause a neutrophilia, often with a left shift. They don't cause an eosinophilia.
    • DIncorrect. Blood loss and hemolysis mainly affect the red cell values (anemia, often with a regenerative response). They aren't a typical cause of increased eosinophils.
  7. Question 7

    'Coffin-lid' shaped crystals in urine sediment are typically:

    • ACalcium oxalate
    • BStruvite
    • CUrate
    • DCystine
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B) Struvite

    • AIncorrect. Those look like envelopes.
    • BCorrect. Magnesium ammonium phosphate.
    • CIncorrect. Those are ammonium biurate spheres.
    • DIncorrect. Those are hexagonal.
  8. Question 8

    During a centrifugal fecal flotation, why do most nematode eggs and coccidian oocysts collect on the coverslip?

    • AThe flotation solution has a higher specific gravity than the eggs and oocysts, so they rise to the surface
    • BThe eggs and oocysts have a higher specific gravity than the solution, so centrifugation drives them to the meniscus
    • CThe flotation solution dissolves the outer egg shell, making the eggs light enough to rise above the debris
    • DThe flotation solution has a lower specific gravity than water, letting eggs rise faster than fecal debris
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) The flotation solution has a higher specific gravity than the eggs and oocysts, so they rise to the surface

    Fecal flotation concentrates parasite stages whose specific gravity is lower than the solution's, so they rise to the coverslip. Dense eggs, such as many fluke eggs, do not float in standard solutions and are found by sedimentation.

    • ACorrect. Flotation works because the solution (usually about 1.20–1.35) is denser than most nematode eggs and coccidian oocysts. Those stages are buoyant and rise to the meniscus and coverslip, while heavier debris settles.
    • BIncorrect. This reverses the principle. Stages denser than the solution sink, which is why dense eggs, such as many fluke eggs, need a sedimentation technique instead.
    • CIncorrect. Flotation solutions are not meant to dissolve eggshells. Eggs rise because they are less dense than the solution. Leaving a sample in solution too long can actually distort eggs.
    • DIncorrect. Flotation solutions are denser than water (specific gravity above 1.0). Most parasite eggs sink in plain water, which has a specific gravity of 1.000.
  9. Question 9

    Casts in urine sediment usually suggest:

    • AKidney tubule damage or disease
    • BA normal finding in every sample
    • CBladder stones only
    • DContamination from the skin
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Kidney tubule damage or disease

    • ACorrect. They form in the tubules.
    • BIncorrect. Many casts are abnormal.
    • CIncorrect. Casts form in the kidney.
    • DIncorrect. Casts form in the kidney.
  10. Question 10

    A veterinary technician needs to spin one capped serum-separator tube from a canine patient in a fixed-angle centrifuge. Which action is most appropriate before starting the run?

    • APlace a capped tube holding an equal volume of water in the slot directly opposite the sample
    • BPlace the sample tube in any open slot, since a single tube is too light to unbalance the rotor
    • CLoosen the cap slightly so pressure inside the tube can equalize during the spin
    • DPlace an empty tube in the slot right next to the sample to steady it
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Place a capped tube holding an equal volume of water in the slot directly opposite the sample

    A centrifuge must be balanced before it runs: tubes of equal weight go directly opposite each other, using a water-filled balance tube when needed. Tubes stay capped to prevent aerosols.

    • ACorrect. A balance tube of equal weight placed opposite the sample spreads the load evenly around the rotor. This prevents vibration, damage to the rotor and centrifuge, and poor separation.
    • BIncorrect. Even one tube makes the load uneven at high speed. The rotor must be balanced no matter how many tubes are loaded.
    • CIncorrect. Tubes should stay capped while spinning. Loose or open caps let the sample leak and form aerosols, which puts staff at risk if the sample is infectious.
    • DIncorrect. An empty tube in the next slot does not offset the sample's weight. The counterweight must be equal in weight and sit directly opposite the sample.

Laboratory Procedures: FAQs

How much of the VTNE exam is Laboratory Procedures?

Laboratory Procedures is 9% of the VTNE exam by the official exam guide's weighting, which on a 170-question form works out to roughly 15 questions. The real exam's exact split varies by form.

What does the Laboratory Procedures domain cover?

Collecting, handling and running samples: haematology, biochemistry, urinalysis, parasitology, cytology and microbiology, plus quality control.

How should I study Laboratory Procedures for VTNE?

Pair each tube colour with its anticoagulant and the tests it suits, and learn the common parasite eggs from images.

Where can I practise more Laboratory Procedures questions?

This page has 10 free Laboratory Procedures questions with answers. The ExamWize VTNE question bank has 55 questions in this domain. Every practice exam result breaks your score down by domain, and Review Mode re-drills the questions you missed.

Get Laboratory Procedures exam-ready

The full VTNE bank has 55 Laboratory Procedures questions. Timed practice exams match the real exam's length and domain weights, every result shows your score per domain, and Review Mode re-drills the questions you missed.

Not affiliated with AAVSB; questions are original, written from the official exam outline, and never copied from the real exam.