Skip to main content

NHA · CET

CET EKG Technician practice questions with answers

15 free practice questions for the Certified EKG Technician (CET), spread across the exam's topics. Try each one, then open the answer to see why every option is right or wrong.

  1. Question 1 · Safety, Compliance, and Coordinated Patient Care

    Before performing an EKG, the technician should confirm the patient's identity using:

    • ATheir appearance
    • BRoom number only
    • CTwo identifiers
    • DThe chart color
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C) Two identifiers

    • AIncorrect. This is unreliable.
    • BIncorrect. Room numbers are not identifiers.
    • CCorrect. Use name and date of birth (or another approved identifier).
    • DIncorrect. This is not an identifier.
  2. Question 2 · Safety, Compliance, and Coordinated Patient Care

    A patient is scheduled for an exercise (treadmill) stress test. Which condition in the patient's history is an absolute contraindication to the test?

    • AModerate stenotic valvular heart disease found on a recent echo
    • BSevere aortic stenosis that causes exertional chest pain or fainting
    • CHigh-grade atrioventricular block noted on a prior EKG
    • DResting blood pressure above 200/110 mm Hg at check-in
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B) Severe aortic stenosis that causes exertional chest pain or fainting

    Symptomatic severe aortic stenosis is an absolute contraindication to exercise stress testing because exertion can trigger syncope, arrhythmias, or death. Moderate valve stenosis, high-grade AV block, and severe hypertension are relative contraindications.

    • AIncorrect. Moderate stenotic valve disease is a relative contraindication. The test may go ahead if the expected benefit outweighs the risk.
    • BCorrect. Symptomatic severe aortic stenosis is an absolute contraindication. Exercise can cause syncope, dangerous ventricular arrhythmias, and sudden death.
    • CIncorrect. High-grade AV block is listed as a relative contraindication, not an absolute one.
    • DIncorrect. Severe resting hypertension (systolic over 200 or diastolic over 110 mm Hg) is a relative contraindication that the provider weighs before testing.
  3. Question 3 · Safety, Compliance, and Coordinated Patient Care

    Before a 12-lead EKG, a patient says they are nervous because a relative 'had heart trouble found on one of these tests.' Which response best demonstrates active listening?

    • ALet the patient finish speaking, then restate the concern in your own words to confirm you understood it
    • BTell the patient there is nothing to worry about and begin attaching the electrodes right away
    • CAsk only yes-or-no questions so the conversation stays brief and focused on the procedure
    • DExplain the precordial lead positions using exact anatomic terms so the patient knows the test is routine
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Let the patient finish speaking, then restate the concern in your own words to confirm you understood it

    Active listening means letting the patient finish and then confirming you understood the concern. False reassurance, closed questions, and jargon all get in the way of good communication.

    • ACorrect. Active listening means paying full attention, letting the patient express the concern, and checking your understanding before you respond. This matches guidance to listen carefully and understand the patient's concerns.
    • BIncorrect. This is false reassurance. It brushes aside the patient's concern instead of exploring it, so it shuts down communication.
    • CIncorrect. Closed questions limit what the patient can share. Open-ended questions are recommended because they bring out the patient's concerns and beliefs.
    • DIncorrect. Medical jargon can confuse patients, especially those with low health literacy, and it does not address the concern the patient raised.
  4. Question 4 · Safety, Compliance, and Coordinated Patient Care

    A 4-year-old child collapses and is unresponsive, and an AED is brought to the scene. The AED kit contains both standard adult pads and pediatric dose-attenuating pads. Which action is most appropriate?

    • AApply the pediatric dose-attenuating pads and follow the AED prompts
    • BHold off on shocking until a manual defibrillator with pediatric settings arrives
    • CTrim the adult pads with scissors so they fit the child's smaller chest
    • DPlace the adult pads side by side on the front of the chest, letting them overlap
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Apply the pediatric dose-attenuating pads and follow the AED prompts

    When pediatric dose-attenuating pads are available, use them on young children (8 or younger, or under 25 kg). Never delay a shock or cut pads, and don't let pads touch.

    • ACorrect. For children aged 8 or younger or under 25 kg, an AED with a pediatric dose attenuator is used when one is available.
    • BIncorrect. Delaying defibrillation because child equipment is missing is not recommended. A shock should not be delayed when an AED is available.
    • CIncorrect. Defibrillator pads must not be cut to fit the patient. If only adult pads are available, place them front-to-back (anterior-posterior) instead.
    • DIncorrect. The pads must not touch each other. Pediatric pads are preferred here, and adult pads on a small child go front-to-back so they don't overlap.
  5. Question 5 · Safety, Compliance, and Coordinated Patient Care

    A patient asks the technician to change their pacemaker settings. What should the technician say?

    • AThat they'll adjust it with a magnet right away, since it only takes a minute
    • BThat it's outside their scope, but they'll tell the provider
    • CThat pacemakers never need adjustment
    • DThat the patient can adjust it at home
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B) That it's outside their scope, but they'll tell the provider

    • AIncorrect. That's outside scope.
    • BCorrect. Device changes need qualified staff.
    • CIncorrect. They sometimes do.
    • DIncorrect. That isn't possible.
  6. Question 6 · EKG Acquisition

    An EKG technician records a 12-lead tracing on a digital machine and saves it in the machine's memory before sending it to the patient's electronic record. What is the main benefit of saving it first?

    • AThe machine can re-filter the saved tracing to remove artifact before sending it
    • BA copy stays available to resend if the transmission fails or is interrupted
    • CThe saved tracing no longer needs two patient identifiers verified before upload
    • DThe machine's preliminary interpretation becomes a confirmed physician reading
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B) A copy stays available to resend if the transmission fails or is interrupted

    Saving a tracing in the machine before transmitting keeps a backup copy that can be resent if the upload fails. It does not change the tracing's quality, the identity checks, or the need for provider interpretation.

    • AIncorrect. Saving does not improve signal quality. Major artifact is fixed by addressing its cause (patient movement, poor electrode contact) and recording again.
    • BCorrect. Keeping the tracing in memory means it is not lost if the network or upload fails. It can be resent without recording the patient again.
    • CIncorrect. Two patient identifiers must still be verified so the tracing goes to the right patient's chart, whether or not it was saved first.
    • DIncorrect. A machine-generated interpretation is preliminary. Saving it does not replace review by a qualified provider.
  7. Question 7 · EKG Acquisition

    An EKG technician turns on the electrocardiograph and the unit runs a short self-test before showing the patient entry screen. What is the main purpose of this self-test?

    • ATo confirm the unit's internal systems are working properly before patient use
    • BTo record a 1 mV standardization pulse on the patient's tracing
    • CTo confirm that all ten lead wires are attached to the patient
    • DTo measure the patient's skin impedance at each electrode site
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) To confirm the unit's internal systems are working properly before patient use

    An electrocardiograph runs a power-on self-test to check that its internal functions work before it is used on a patient. Calibration pulses, lead-off alerts and skin preparation are separate parts of getting a good tracing.

    • ACorrect. The power-on self-test checks the machine's internal functions so that a fault is found before any patient is connected. If it reports an error, take the unit out of service and report it as your facility's policy requires.
    • BIncorrect. The standardization (calibration) pulse appears on the printed tracing so readers can check amplitude: 1 mV makes the stylus move 10 mm. It is not the purpose of the power-on self-test.
    • CIncorrect. The self-test runs before any patient is connected. Lead-off alerts during acquisition are a separate check, and the technician still has to confirm each electrode is in the right place.
    • DIncorrect. Skin impedance depends on how the skin is prepared and how well the electrodes make contact once they are applied. The machine's start-up check does not measure it.
  8. Question 8 · EKG Acquisition

    When mounting a rhythm strip, the technician must not:

    • ACover the waveforms
    • BLabel the strip
    • CRecord the date
    • DKeep it straight
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Cover the waveforms

    • ACorrect. Tape or labels must not hide data.
    • BIncorrect. Labeling is required.
    • CIncorrect. Dates are required.
    • DIncorrect. Straight mounting is good.
  9. Question 9 · EKG Acquisition

    Leads V3 and V4 mainly view the heart's:

    • APosterior wall
    • BInferior wall
    • CLateral wall
    • DAnterior wall
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D) Anterior wall

    • AIncorrect. That is V7–V9.
    • BIncorrect. That is II, III, aVF.
    • CIncorrect. That is I, aVL, V5, V6.
    • DCorrect. These are the anterior leads.
  10. Question 10 · EKG Acquisition

    Which method is recommended for accurately finding the correct intercostal spaces for the precordial (chest) electrodes?

    • APalpate the sternal angle, move to the 2nd rib, and count the intercostal spaces downward
    • BPlace V4 directly beneath the nipple and then position the other leads around it
    • CStart at the bottom of the sternum (xiphoid process) and count the intercostal spaces upward
    • DPalpate the clavicle and count intercostal spaces down, starting with the first space you feel
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Palpate the sternal angle, move to the 2nd rib, and count the intercostal spaces downward

    Precordial electrode positions are found with the angle of Louis method. Palpate the sternal angle, which is level with the 2nd rib, then count down to the 4th intercostal space for V1 and V2 and the 5th for V4.

    • ACorrect. The angle of Louis (sternal angle) is level with the 2nd rib. Counting down from there finds the 4th intercostal space for V1 and V2 and the 5th for V4.
    • BIncorrect. Nipple position varies between patients, especially in women and in people with larger breast tissue, so it is not a reliable landmark. V4 goes in the 5th intercostal space at the midclavicular line.
    • CIncorrect. The lower ribs and costal margin are hard to tell apart when palpating, so counting up from the xiphoid often puts leads in the wrong place. The standard reference is the sternal angle.
    • DIncorrect. The 1st rib and 1st intercostal space are hard to feel under the clavicle, so this method often leads to miscounting and placing the electrodes too high.
  11. Question 11 · EKG Acquisition

    During a treadmill stress test, the automated blood pressure monitor gives a reading that doesn't fit the patient's condition. What is the most likely reason automated readings are less reliable during exercise?

    • AArm movement and treadmill noise interfere with how the device detects the pulse
    • BThe EKG lead wires electrically interfere with the cuff's pressure transducer
    • CSweat on the arm reduces contact between the cuff and the skin's electrical sensors
    • DExercise-induced vasodilation means a larger cuff is needed for each stage
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Arm movement and treadmill noise interfere with how the device detects the pulse

    Movement and background noise during exercise can disrupt the pulsations or sounds an automated BP monitor relies on. Readings that seem wrong should be confirmed manually with auscultation.

    • ACorrect. Automated devices detect pressure pulsations (oscillometric) or Korotkoff sounds. Movement and background noise during exercise can distort these signals, so a questionable reading should be checked manually with auscultation.
    • BIncorrect. The BP cuff measures pressure, not electrical signals, and the EKG leads don't throw off its readings. The usual cause of error during exercise is physical motion and noise.
    • CIncorrect. BP cuffs don't use skin electrical sensors. Sweat can make a cuff slip, but the main reason for inaccuracy is motion artifact and noise.
    • DIncorrect. Cuff size depends on the patient's arm circumference and doesn't change with each exercise stage. The right size is chosen before the test starts.
  12. Question 12 · EKG Acquisition

    What is the main purpose of a Holter diary?

    • ATo match symptoms and activities to the recording
    • BTo record what the patient ate at each meal and snack throughout the day
    • CTo list the patient's insurance details
    • DTo track electrode colors
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) To match symptoms and activities to the recording

    • ACorrect. It helps interpretation.
    • BIncorrect. Symptoms and activities matter most.
    • CIncorrect. It's for symptoms.
    • DIncorrect. It's for symptoms.
  13. Question 13 · EKG Analysis and Interpretation

    A late, wide beat that follows a pause and has no P wave is a:

    • APVC
    • BPremature atrial contraction
    • CVentricular escape beat
    • DNormal sinus beat
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C) Ventricular escape beat

    • AIncorrect. PVCs come early.
    • BIncorrect. That comes early with a P wave.
    • CCorrect. It protects against a long pause.
    • DIncorrect. It has no P wave and is wide.
  14. Question 14 · EKG Analysis and Interpretation

    Atrial fibrillation with a ventricular rate of 130 bpm is called:

    • AJunctional rhythm
    • BControlled AF
    • CSinus tachycardia
    • DAF with rapid ventricular response
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D) AF with rapid ventricular response

    • AIncorrect. AF is irregular.
    • BIncorrect. That's under 100.
    • CIncorrect. AF has no P waves.
    • DCorrect. It may need rate control.
  15. Question 15 · EKG Analysis and Interpretation

    A 12-lead EKG shows tall R waves with flat ST-segment depression in leads V1 through V3. This pattern most suggests injury to which area of the heart?

    • AAnterior wall of the left ventricle
    • BInferior wall of the left ventricle
    • CPosterior wall of the left ventricle
    • DLateral wall of the left ventricle
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C) Posterior wall of the left ventricle

    ST depression and tall R waves in V1–V3 are the reciprocal (mirror-image) sign of posterior wall injury. Posterior leads V7–V9 can show ST elevation to confirm it.

    • AIncorrect. Acute anterior injury typically causes ST elevation in the anterior chest leads, not ST depression with tall R waves.
    • BIncorrect. Inferior wall injury appears in limb leads II, III, and aVF, not mainly in V1–V3.
    • CCorrect. No standard lead faces the posterior wall directly, so V1–V3 show a mirror image: ST depression and tall R waves instead of ST elevation and Q waves. Posterior leads V7–V9 can confirm it.
    • DIncorrect. Lateral wall changes appear in leads I, aVL, V5, and V6, not mainly in V1–V3.

Ready for a full CET practice exam?

These are a sample from the ExamWize question bank. Full practice exams match the real exam's length, time limit and topic weights, with every answer explained.

Original questions written from the official exam outline. Not affiliated with NHA; never copied from the real exam.