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RT · 31% of the exam

Initiation and Modification of Interventions practice questions

10 free Initiation and Modification of Interventions questions for the NBRC Respiratory Therapy Examination (formerly TMC) (RT) exam, each with the correct answer and an explanation for every option.

What this domain covers

The largest Breadth section: starting, adjusting and stopping respiratory care, from airway management and secretion clearance to mechanical ventilation and drug therapy.

Exam weight
31%
On a real exam
≈ 57 questions
In our bank
178 questions

Topics that come up most

  • Initiating and adjusting mechanical ventilation
  • Airway management and secretion clearance
  • Oxygen therapy and noninvasive ventilation
  • Aerosolised and other respiratory medications
  • Weaning, emergency care and patient education

How to study it

Learn which ventilator setting to change to correct a specific gas problem (for example raising rate for high PaCO2, raising FiO2 or PEEP for low PaO2); this logic underpins many questions.

Sample Initiation and Modification of Interventions questions

Try each one before opening the answer. Original questions written to the official exam objectives.

  1. Question 1

    Albuterol is classified as a:

    • ALong-acting anticholinergic
    • BShort-acting beta-2 agonist
    • CInhaled corticosteroid
    • DMucolytic
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B) Short-acting beta-2 agonist

    • AIncorrect. That's tiotropium.
    • BCorrect. A rescue bronchodilator.
    • CIncorrect. That's budesonide or fluticasone.
    • DIncorrect. That's acetylcysteine or dornase.
  2. Question 2

    A patient with COPD and chronic hypercapnia (baseline PaCO2 58 mm Hg) is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which SpO2 target range is most appropriate when titrating the oxygen?

    • A75% to 80%
    • B98% to 100%
    • C88% to 92%
    • D92% to 98%
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C) 88% to 92%

    Patients with COPD who chronically retain CO2 are titrated to an SpO2 of 88% to 92%. This avoids hypoxemia and also avoids the rise in PaCO2 that excess oxygen can cause.

    • AIncorrect. This range allows clinically significant hypoxemia and inadequate tissue oxygen delivery.
    • BIncorrect. Hyperoxia in CO2 retainers worsens V/Q mismatch and dead space, which raises PaCO2.
    • CCorrect. This target corrects hypoxemia while limiting the risk of oxygen-induced hypercapnia in patients with chronic CO2 retention.
    • DIncorrect. This is the usual target for patients without a risk of hypercapnia. It is too high for a chronic CO2 retainer.
  3. Question 3

    An adolescent with cystic fibrosis wants an airway clearance method she can do on her own without devices. The therapist teaches autogenic drainage. Which description matches this technique?

    • ACycles of breathing control, thoracic expansion exercises and huffing (forced expiration)
    • BRepeated exhalations against a fixed-orifice resistor that splints the airways open
    • CControlled tidal breathing at low, then mid, then high lung volumes to move mucus up
    • DGravity-assisted positioning with manual percussion and vibration given by a therapist
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C) Controlled tidal breathing at low, then mid, then high lung volumes to move mucus up

    Autogenic drainage is a self-directed breathing technique. The patient breathes at progressively larger lung volumes (unstick, collect, evacuate) to mobilize secretions without devices or an assistant.

    • AIncorrect. This describes the active cycle of breathing technique (ACBT), a different device-free airway clearance method built around the forced expiration technique.
    • BIncorrect. This describes positive expiratory pressure (PEP) therapy, which needs a mask or mouthpiece device with a resistor.
    • CCorrect. Autogenic drainage moves through unstick (low volume), collect (mid volume) and evacuate (high volume) phases. The airflow shears mucus from the airway walls and moves it toward the mouth, with no equipment needed.
    • DIncorrect. This is conventional chest physiotherapy (postural drainage with percussion and vibration). It needs a caregiver and is not a self-directed breathing technique.
  4. Question 4

    In high-frequency oscillatory ventilation, what mainly controls CO2 removal?

    • AAmplitude (delta P)
    • BFiO2, which mainly affects oxygenation
    • CMean airway pressure only
    • DHumidifier temperature
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Amplitude (delta P)

    • ACorrect. Mean airway pressure mainly affects oxygenation.
    • BIncorrect. It affects oxygen.
    • CIncorrect. That mainly affects oxygenation.
    • DIncorrect. It doesn't control CO2.
  5. Question 5

    Inhaled epoprostenol may be used to:

    • ARaise systemic blood pressure during septic shock
    • BLower pulmonary artery pressure and improve oxygenation
    • CTreat bacterial pneumonia
    • DThin mucus
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B) Lower pulmonary artery pressure and improve oxygenation

    • AIncorrect. It's a pulmonary vasodilator.
    • BCorrect. It dilates pulmonary vessels.
    • CIncorrect. It isn't an antibiotic.
    • DIncorrect. It's a vasodilator.
  6. Question 6

    A patient with an acute COPD exacerbation is on NIV through a single-limb circuit with an exhalation leak port. Albuterol is ordered without interrupting ventilatory support. Which setup is most likely to give the best aerosol delivery?

    • AA vibrating mesh nebulizer placed between the leak port and a non-vented mask
    • BA jet nebulizer with a vented mask, loosening the straps to raise leak flow
    • CRemoving the mask and giving a hand-held jet nebulizer, then resuming NIV
    • DAn MDI fired into the mask port without a spacer, between NIV breaths
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) A vibrating mesh nebulizer placed between the leak port and a non-vented mask

    Aerosol can be given in-line during NIV. Delivery is best with a vibrating mesh nebulizer between the leak port and a non-vented mask and minimal mask leak, since high leak and vented masks greatly reduce the delivered dose.

    • ACorrect. In this position the inspiratory pressure pushes the aerosol toward the patient, and mesh nebulizers deliver more drug than jet nebulizers because they have less dead volume.
    • BIncorrect. Vented masks and high mask leak sharply reduce delivered dose. Aerosol is lost through the leak instead of reaching the lungs.
    • CIncorrect. This interrupts ventilatory support in a patient with respiratory failure. In-line delivery lets therapy continue during NIV.
    • DIncorrect. In-line MDI delivery uses a spacer/chamber adapter in the circuit, timed with inspiration. Firing without a spacer between breaths leaves most of the dose on the mask and circuit.
  7. Question 7

    A 55-year-old man with no chronic lung disease is on volume-control ventilation for pneumonia. On an FiO2 of 0.70 his SpO2 is 100%, and his arterial PaCO2 is 41 mm Hg. Which SpO2 range should the respiratory therapist target while lowering the FiO2?

    • A92% to 96%
    • B88% to 92%
    • C98% to 100%
    • D84% to 88%
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) 92% to 96%

    For a ventilated adult without chronic hypercapnia, titrate FiO2 to an SpO2 of about 92–96%. Use 88–92% only for chronic hypercapnic patients, and avoid running SpO2 near 100% on a high FiO2.

    • ACorrect. For a hypoxemic adult without chronic hypercapnia, 92–96% gives enough oxygen and stays within the 92–98% upper bound for otherwise healthy patients. It also lets the FiO2 come down from a level that risks oxygen toxicity.
    • BIncorrect. This lower range is for patients with chronic hypercapnic conditions such as COPD. This patient has no chronic lung disease and a normal PaCO2.
    • CIncorrect. Keeping SpO2 near 100% means more oxygen than needed and keeps the FiO2 high. A prolonged FiO2 above 0.60 can cause pulmonary oxygen toxicity.
    • DIncorrect. This is below accepted targets even for chronic hypercapnic patients and would leave this patient hypoxemic for no reason.
  8. Question 8

    During CPR, an ETCO2 below 10 mm Hg suggests:

    • AA normal finding
    • BReturn of spontaneous circulation
    • CHyperventilation from breaths given too fast during compressions
    • DPoor-quality compressions or low cardiac output
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D) Poor-quality compressions or low cardiac output

    • AIncorrect. It's too low.
    • BIncorrect. That shows a sudden rise.
    • CIncorrect. ETCO2 reflects perfusion here.
    • DCorrect. Improve compressions.
  9. Question 9

    What does IPPB therapy deliver?

    • AContinuous negative pressure
    • BPositive-pressure breaths to help lung expansion
    • COnly oxygen at low flow
    • DHigh-frequency chest vibration through a vest
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B) Positive-pressure breaths to help lung expansion

    • AIncorrect. It's positive pressure.
    • BCorrect. It's used when other methods fail.
    • CIncorrect. It delivers pressure breaths.
    • DIncorrect. That's a different device.
  10. Question 10

    A patient with COPD is being evaluated for long-term home oxygen therapy. Under Medicare's home oxygen coverage criteria, which finding at rest on room air qualifies the patient without any other supporting conditions?

    • APaO2 of 54 mm Hg or SaO2 of 87%
    • BPaO2 of 58 mm Hg or SaO2 of 89%
    • CPaO2 of 62 mm Hg or SaO2 of 91%
    • DPaO2 of 70 mm Hg with dyspnea on exertion
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) PaO2 of 54 mm Hg or SaO2 of 87%

    Medicare Group I criteria for home oxygen are PaO2 ≤55 mm Hg or SaO2 ≤88% at rest on room air. Values of 56–59 mm Hg or 89% qualify only with Group II supporting conditions.

    • ACorrect. Group I criteria are an arterial PO2 at or below 55 mm Hg or an arterial oxygen saturation at or below 88%, measured at rest on room air. These values meet that threshold, so no other findings are needed.
    • BIncorrect. A PO2 of 56–59 mm Hg or SaO2 of 89% falls into Group II. Group II also requires dependent edema suggesting heart failure, pulmonary hypertension or cor pulmonale, or a hematocrit above 56%.
    • CIncorrect. These values are above both the Group I and Group II resting thresholds, so they don't qualify for home oxygen at rest.
    • DIncorrect. Shortness of breath alone isn't a qualifying criterion. Exercise-based qualification requires documented desaturation to PO2 ≤55 mm Hg or SaO2 ≤88% during exercise, plus proof that oxygen improves it.

Initiation and Modification of Interventions: FAQs

How much of the RT exam is Initiation and Modification of Interventions?

Initiation and Modification of Interventions is 31% of the RT exam by the official exam guide's weighting, which on a 185-question form works out to roughly 57 questions. The real exam's exact split varies by form.

What does the Initiation and Modification of Interventions domain cover?

The largest Breadth section: starting, adjusting and stopping respiratory care, from airway management and secretion clearance to mechanical ventilation and drug therapy.

How should I study Initiation and Modification of Interventions for RT?

Learn which ventilator setting to change to correct a specific gas problem (for example raising rate for high PaCO2, raising FiO2 or PEEP for low PaO2); this logic underpins many questions.

Where can I practise more Initiation and Modification of Interventions questions?

This page has 10 free Initiation and Modification of Interventions questions with answers. The ExamWize RT question bank has 178 questions in this domain. Every practice exam result breaks your score down by domain, and Review Mode re-drills the questions you missed.

Get Initiation and Modification of Interventions exam-ready

The full RT bank has 178 Initiation and Modification of Interventions questions. Timed practice exams match the real exam's length and domain weights, every result shows your score per domain, and Review Mode re-drills the questions you missed.

Not affiliated with NBRC; questions are original, written from the official exam outline, and never copied from the real exam.