NHA · CPCT/A
CPCT/A Patient Care Technician practice questions with answers
15 free practice questions for the Certified Patient Care Technician/Assistant (CPCT/A), spread across the exam's topics. Try each one, then open the answer to see why every option is right or wrong.
Question 1 · Patient Care
A patient recovering from a stroke has weakness on the left side of the body. Where should the technician place the call light, water and other items the patient needs?
- AOn the left side, so the patient is encouraged to use the weak arm
- BOn the right side, within easy reach of the stronger arm
- COn the overbed table pushed to the foot of the bed
- DIn the bedside drawer, so the area stays free of clutter
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B) On the right side, within easy reach of the stronger arm
For a patient with one-sided weakness, place the call light and personal items on the unaffected (stronger) side so the patient can reach them safely and on their own.
- AIncorrect. Therapy may work on the affected arm, but the patient may not be able to reach or grasp items on the weak side. Placing the call light there could leave the patient unable to call for help.
- BCorrect. After a stroke, muscles on one side may be weak or may not move at all. Placing needed items on the unaffected (right) side lets the patient reach them safely and on their own.
- CIncorrect. Items at the foot of the bed are out of reach. The patient may stretch or try to get up to reach them, which raises the risk of a fall.
- DIncorrect. A closed drawer is hard to open with one-sided weakness, and items stored there are not readily available. Needed items, especially the call light, should be within easy reach.
Question 2 · Patient Care
During purposeful hourly rounding, a patient care technician asks about pain, offers toileting help (potty), and repositions the patient. To complete the standard "4 Ps," what does the technician check next?
- APossessions: call light, phone, water, and glasses within reach
- BPulse: radial pulse counted for one full minute
- CPressure: blood pressure taken and recorded in the chart
- DPrivacy: curtain drawn and door closed before leaving
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A) Possessions: call light, phone, water, and glasses within reach
The 4 Ps of hourly rounding are pain, potty, position and possessions. Placing the call light and personal items within reach is a key fall-prevention step.
- ACorrect. The 4 Ps are pain, potty, position and possessions. Keeping the call light and personal items within reach stops patients from reaching or getting up alone, which helps prevent falls. Some facilities add a fifth P (for example, personal needs) or use a different one, but possessions is the standard fourth P.
- BIncorrect. The technician takes vital signs on the schedule ordered or set by policy. Pulse is not one of the 4 Ps of hourly rounding.
- CIncorrect. Blood pressure is a vital sign measured as ordered, not a standard rounding P. The 4 Ps focus on comfort and safety needs that lead patients to get up without help.
- DIncorrect. Privacy matters during care, but it is not one of the 4 Ps. Closing the door can actually make it harder for staff to see a high-fall-risk patient.
Question 3 · Patient Care
A patient has a nasogastric (NG) tube connected to low intermittent suction. What should be documented about the tube's drainage?
- AThe suction setting and tube placement, with the canister emptied without measuring it
- BThe drainage color, with the volume left off intake and output because it is not urine
- CThe amount of drainage plus its color, odor, and consistency, recorded as output
- DThe total drainage volume, measured once every 24 hours when the canister is replaced
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C) The amount of drainage plus its color, odor, and consistency, recorded as output
NG suction drainage counts as output. Record its amount and describe its color, odor, and consistency, usually every shift.
- AIncorrect. The suction setting is checked, but the canister output must also be measured and described. It cannot be discarded without measuring it.
- BIncorrect. NG drainage is a fluid output. Its volume is recorded on the intake and output record, not just urine.
- CCorrect. Canister output is measured and described by color, odor, consistency, and amount, then recorded as output.
- DIncorrect. Suction drainage is monitored and documented at least every shift. Waiting 24 hours could miss changes in amount or appearance.
Question 4 · Patient Care
Which signs may suggest a fecal impaction?
- ARegular, formed daily stools
- BLeaking liquid stool and abdominal discomfort
- CIncreased appetite
- DClear urine
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B) Leaking liquid stool and abdominal discomfort
- AIncorrect. That's normal.
- BCorrect. Report these signs to the nurse.
- CIncorrect. That isn't a sign.
- DIncorrect. That isn't related.
Question 5 · Patient Care
A patient begins to have a seizure in bed. What should the technician do?
- AHold the patient's arms down
- BPut a padded spoon in the patient's mouth so they can't bite their tongue
- CProtect the head, move objects away and call the nurse
- DLeave to find help without calling
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C) Protect the head, move objects away and call the nurse
- AIncorrect. Don't restrain.
- BIncorrect. That can cause injury.
- CCorrect. Time the seizure.
- DIncorrect. Call for help and stay.
Question 6 · Patient Care
A post-op patient who was alert earlier is now newly confused. Respirations are 28/min and SpO2 has dropped to 89%. The patient is breathing and has a pulse. Which action by the PCT is most appropriate?
- AAlert the nurse right away and activate the rapid response team according to facility policy
- BCall a code blue, because a sudden change in mental status is a cardiac arrest
- CRecheck the vital signs at the next scheduled round and report them if they are still abnormal
- DDocument the findings in the chart and include them in the end-of-shift handoff report
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A) Alert the nurse right away and activate the rapid response team according to facility policy
Rapid response teams are called at the first signs of deterioration, such as new confusion, fast breathing or falling oxygen saturation, while the patient still has a pulse and is breathing. A code blue is for arrest.
- ACorrect. Rapid response teams are meant to be called when a patient first shows signs of getting worse, such as new confusion, low oxygen or abnormal vital signs. Early treatment aims to prevent cardiac or respiratory arrest.
- BIncorrect. A code blue is for a patient who has stopped breathing or has no pulse. This patient is breathing and has a pulse but is getting worse, which calls for a rapid response.
- CIncorrect. Waiting hours lets the patient keep getting worse. Failing to recognize and respond to deterioration quickly is what rapid response systems are designed to prevent.
- DIncorrect. Documenting is needed, but acute changes must be reported and acted on right away, not held for the handoff report.
Question 7 · Patient Care
A patient care technician is giving a partial bed bath. Along with the face, hands and axillae, which area should be washed?
- AThe lower legs and feet
- BThe perineal area
- CThe chest and abdomen
- DThe scalp and hair
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B) The perineal area
A partial bath cleans the areas that cause odor or discomfort if left unwashed: the face, hands, axillae and perineal area. The perineum is washed front to back.
- AIncorrect. The legs and feet are washed during a complete bed bath. They are not among the areas cleaned in a partial bath.
- BCorrect. A partial bath cleans the areas most likely to cause odor, discomfort or infection: the face, hands, axillae and perineal area. The perineum is washed front to back to prevent infection.
- CIncorrect. The chest and abdomen are washed during a complete bath. They are not a standard part of a partial bath.
- DIncorrect. Shampooing is a separate grooming task and is not part of a partial bath.
Question 8 · Compliance, Safety, and Professional Responsibility
A nurse asks a patient care technician (PCT) to perform a task that is outside the PCT's scope of practice. The PCT politely declines and tells the nurse why. Practicing within scope in this way mainly protects:
- AThe patient from unsafe care, and the PCT and nurse from legal liability
- BThe facility's billing from insurer denials for the procedure being performed
- CThe PCT from having extra tasks added to the assignment during a busy shift
- DThe nurse's authority to choose which team members receive certain tasks
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A) The patient from unsafe care, and the PCT and nurse from legal liability
Working within scope of practice keeps patients from receiving care the worker is not trained or authorized to give. It also protects the PCT and the delegating nurse from the legal consequences of improper delegation.
- ACorrect. Tasks outside a worker's scope and training put patients at risk. Improper delegation can harm patient care and expose staff to legal action, so staying within scope protects both patients and staff.
- BIncorrect. Scope of practice is a safety and legal limit on what a worker may do. It is not mainly a billing or reimbursement safeguard.
- CIncorrect. Workload is not a reason to decline a task. A PCT declines out-of-scope tasks because of patient safety and legal limits, not to avoid work.
- DIncorrect. The nurse stays accountable for delegation decisions either way. Declining an out-of-scope task is about safe, legal care, not about protecting the nurse's authority.
Question 9 · Compliance, Safety, and Professional Responsibility
According to OSHA, which approach is most effective at reducing back injuries among staff who transfer and reposition patients?
- AUsing mechanical lift and transfer devices as part of a safe patient handling program
- BRelying on proper body mechanics training as the main protection for staff
- CHaving staff wear back support belts during every manual patient transfer
- DAssigning two staff members to manually lift each dependent patient
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A) Using mechanical lift and transfer devices as part of a safe patient handling program
OSHA's safe patient handling guidance focuses on mechanical lift equipment within a full program. Body mechanics, back belts and team manual lifting are not effective protection on their own.
- ACorrect. OSHA says healthcare must rely on technology, meaning assistive devices plus a full safe patient handling program, to cut down on manual handling.
- BIncorrect. OSHA notes that body mechanics training alone does not effectively prevent patient-handling injuries.
- CIncorrect. OSHA lists back belts, like body mechanics, as not being an effective way to prevent injuries on their own.
- DIncorrect. Adding a second person to a manual lift still leaves staff exposed to overexertion. OSHA's guidance is to limit manual lifting by using equipment.
Question 10 · Compliance, Safety, and Professional Responsibility
Which is an acceptable patient identifier?
- ABed location
- BRoom number
- CDiagnosis
- DDate of birth
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D) Date of birth
- AIncorrect. This isn't an identifier.
- BIncorrect. Rooms change.
- CIncorrect. This isn't an identifier.
- DCorrect. Name and date of birth are common identifiers.
Question 11 · Infection Control
A sharps container should be replaced when it is:
- AThree-quarters full
- BOverflowing
- CHalf full
- DNever
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A) Three-quarters full
- ACorrect. Overfilling risks needlesticks.
- BIncorrect. This is unsafe.
- CIncorrect. This wastes containers.
- DIncorrect. Replace at the fill line.
Question 12 · Infection Control
Under OSHA's Bloodborne Pathogens Standard, which item must be included in a facility's written exposure control plan?
- ASafety data sheets for each chemical disinfectant used on the unit
- BA procedure for evaluating the circumstances of exposure incidents
- CA schedule calling for the plan to be reviewed every five years
- DCopies of each employee's confidential post-exposure medical records
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B) A procedure for evaluating the circumstances of exposure incidents
OSHA requires the written exposure control plan to include the exposure determination, the implementation schedule, and the procedure for evaluating exposure incidents. The plan must be reviewed at least once a year.
- AIncorrect. Safety data sheets belong to OSHA's Hazard Communication program for chemical hazards. They are not a required part of the bloodborne pathogens exposure control plan.
- BCorrect. OSHA 1910.1030(c)(1)(ii) requires the plan to include the exposure determination, the schedule and method for putting the standard into practice, and the procedure for evaluating the circumstances of exposure incidents.
- CIncorrect. The plan must be reviewed and updated at least once a year, and also whenever new or changed tasks affect occupational exposure.
- DIncorrect. Employee medical records are confidential and kept separately under the standard's recordkeeping rules. They are not part of the written plan.
Question 13 · Phlebotomy
When doing a capillary puncture, the site should be:
- AOn a bony spot
- BSqueezed hard
- CLeft wet with alcohol
- DWarmed if cold
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D) Warmed if cold
- AIncorrect. Avoid bone.
- BIncorrect. Squeezing dilutes the sample.
- CIncorrect. Let alcohol dry.
- DCorrect. Warming increases blood flow.
Question 14 · Phlebotomy
Petechiae appearing during a blood draw are:
- AHemolyzed cells
- BLarge bruises
- CFainting
- DTiny red spots
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D) Tiny red spots
- AIncorrect. That affects the sample.
- BIncorrect. Those are hematomas.
- CIncorrect. That is syncope.
- DCorrect. They may indicate a clotting issue; bleeding may be prolonged.
Question 15 · EKG
A 6-second strip shows 7 QRS complexes. The estimated heart rate is:
- A70 bpm
- B42 bpm
- C60 bpm
- D100 bpm
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A) 70 bpm
- ACorrect. 7 × 10 = 70.
- BIncorrect. Multiply by 10.
- CIncorrect. Recheck the count.
- DIncorrect. Recheck the count.
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Original questions written from the official exam outline. Not affiliated with NHA; never copied from the real exam.