Emergency Operations practice questions

Answer: C) Turn off the master switch, per the checklist

• AIncorrect. Fuel selection doesn't address an electrical fire.
• BIncorrect. That adds load and heat.
• CCorrect. This may stop the fire's source.
• DIncorrect. Engine power doesn't fix electrical fires.

Answer: D) Break the glass of the vertical speed indicator to vent the static system to the cabin

With a blocked static system and no alternate source in an unpressurized airplane, breaking the VSI glass vents the static system to the cabin. You lose the VSI and may see additional altimeter and airspeed errors.

• AIncorrect. Changing altitude does not clear a blocked static port. With a blocked static system, the altimeter freezes and the airspeed indicator shows incorrect readings as altitude changes.
• BIncorrect. The airspeed indicator is a required flight instrument and also needs pitot pressure. Breaking its glass would sacrifice an essential instrument; FAA guidance names the VSI instead.
• CIncorrect. Pitot heat warms the pitot tube; it is not described as a way to vent a blocked static system, and it does not provide an alternate static source.
• DCorrect. The VSI is not required for instrument flight, so breaking its glass gives the altimeter and airspeed indicator a static source from cabin air. The VSI is then lost, and the other instruments can have additional errors because cabin pressure differs from outside static pressure.

Answer: A) With timed turns at standard rate or compass turns

• ACorrect. Standard rate is 3° per second.
• BIncorrect. It may be the failed instrument.
• CIncorrect. A map may not give reliable heading.
• DIncorrect. Turns may be needed for navigation.

Answer: C) Fly direct from the point of failure to the fix, route, or airway in the vector clearance

If two-way radio communication fails while you are being radar vectored in IFR conditions, 91.185(c)(1)(ii) says to fly direct from the point of failure to the fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance.

• AIncorrect. 91.185 does not tell an IFR pilot to return to the departure airport. The flight continues on the route the regulation specifies.
• BIncorrect. A vectored pilot does not keep holding the last heading. The regulation calls for a direct route from the point of radio failure to the fix, route, or airway in the vector clearance.
• CCorrect. 91.185(c)(1)(ii) says that if you are being radar vectored, you fly the direct route from the point of radio failure to the fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance.
• DIncorrect. The filed route is used only when there is no assigned route and no route ATC has said to expect. A vector clearance that names a fix, route, or airway takes precedence.

Answer: A) Maintain aircraft control on the departure, then return and land following the AFM/POH guidance

An open door is mainly a distraction. Keep flying the airplane, then return and land; don't let the door draw your attention away from aircraft control.

• ACorrect. An open door is usually noisy and distracting but rarely affects controllability. The main danger is the pilot's reaction, so aviate first, then return and land to secure the door on the ground.
• BIncorrect. Fixating on the door during a critical phase of flight in IMC risks loss of control or spatial disorientation, and most doors cannot be closed in flight because of the airflow.
• CIncorrect. Flying slowly near the ground in IMC while distracted greatly increases the risk of a stall and loss of control. Keep a safe airspeed and fly the airplane.
• DIncorrect. An open door seldom requires an emergency descent, and descending in IMC below safe altitudes to get visual creates a much greater hazard than the door.

Answer: A) Suction gauge below its normal range, or a low-vacuum warning light

A suction gauge reading below its normal range, or a low-vacuum warning light, is the most direct early warning of a vacuum pump failure. The electric turn coordinator then becomes the key reference for spotting gyros that are failing.

• ACorrect. The suction gauge (and a low-vacuum light, if installed) watches the vacuum source directly. That is why it belongs in the cross-check: it can show a failure before the gyros slowly spin down and give wrong indications.
• BIncorrect. In a typical light airplane the turn coordinator is electrically powered and stays reliable after a vacuum failure. It is the reference that shows the vacuum gyros are wrong.
• CIncorrect. Frozen pitot-static readings point to a blocked static source or pitot system, not a vacuum pump failure.
• DIncorrect. The magnetic compass is self-contained and does not depend on the vacuum system. Erratic swings come from turbulence or acceleration and turning errors.

Answer: B) Apply full carburetor heat and leave it on even if the roughness briefly gets worse

A gradual RPM drop and then roughness in a carbureted engine point to carburetor ice, which can form at -7°C to 21°C in visible moisture or high humidity. The first action is full carburetor heat, kept on until the ice clears.

• AIncorrect. Partial heat can raise the carburetor air temperature into the range where ice forms most readily, which can make icing worse. Use full heat when ice is suspected.
• BCorrect. A gradual RPM drop and then roughness in a fixed-pitch, carbureted engine are classic signs of carburetor ice. Ice can form between about -7°C and 21°C (20°F to 70°F) in visible moisture or high humidity, including clear, humid air. Full heat melts the ice. The roughness may briefly get worse as melted ice passes through the engine, so the pilot should leave the heat on.
• CIncorrect. Leaning does not remove ice blocking the venturi or throttle valve. With airflow already restricted, it may make the power loss worse.
• DIncorrect. A partly closed throttle and the lower engine heat at low power make carburetor icing more likely, and the ice keeps building. The pilot should apply full carburetor heat right away.

Answer: A) Right away, as soon as the pilot has doubt about position or fuel

FAA guidance treats doubt about position, fuel or weather as at least an urgency condition, so the pilot should ask for help right away instead of waiting for distress. The decision belongs to the PIC, not ATC.

• ACorrect. The AIM says an aircraft is in at least an urgency condition the moment the pilot becomes doubtful about position, fuel endurance, weather or anything else that could affect safety. That is the time to ask for help.
• BIncorrect. The 45-minute reserve is a fuel-planning requirement, not a trigger for asking for help. Waiting that long throws away options and time.
• CIncorrect. Whether to declare is the pilot in command's decision. ATC does not have to approve it or confirm the situation first.
• DIncorrect. FAA guidance says to ask for help while the situation is still an urgency, before it turns into distress.

Answer: D) 121.5 MHz

• AIncorrect. Keep trying to communicate.
• BIncorrect. That is an air-to-air frequency.
• CIncorrect. That is a nav test frequency.
• DCorrect. Try the emergency frequency and other available frequencies.

Answer: A) Keep flying the airplane, follow ATC instructions if able, and remain on the current frequency

After declaring an emergency, the pilot keeps flying the airplane, complies with ATC instructions when able, and stays on the frequency where contact has been made, per AIM 6-3-1.

• ACorrect. Controlling the airplane comes first. AIM 6-3-1 says to comply with the advice and instructions received and not to change frequency unless absolutely necessary.
• BIncorrect. 121.5 MHz is an alternative when contact can't be made. Once the pilot is talking with a controller, the AIM says not to change frequency unless absolutely necessary, and to advise the station first if a change is needed.
• CIncorrect. Code 7600 means lost communications. The emergency code is 7700, and a controller who already has the airplane may keep its assigned code.
• DIncorrect. The pilot should keep cooperating with ATC and ask questions or say when unable to comply. Waiting in silence delays the help the pilot needs.