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Flight Instructor Airplane (FIA) practice questions with answers

15 free practice questions for the Flight Instructor Airplane (FIA) Knowledge Test, spread across the exam's topics. Try each one, then open the answer to see why every option is right or wrong.

  1. Question 1 · 14 CFR, Endorsements and Pilot Qualifications

    What must happen after a student takes the pre-solo knowledge test?

    • AThe FAA grades and returns it
    • BThe instructor reviews missed answers with the student
    • CThe test is mailed to the FSDO
    • DNothing; it's only a practice test for the student's benefit
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B) The instructor reviews missed answers with the student

    • AIncorrect. The instructor administers it.
    • BCorrect. Then the student can be endorsed if proficient.
    • CIncorrect. The instructor keeps it.
    • DIncorrect. It must be reviewed.
  2. Question 2 · 14 CFR, Endorsements and Pilot Qualifications

    Under 14 CFR 61.57(c)(1), to act as PIC under IFR in an airplane, a pilot must have done and logged, within the 6 calendar months before the month of the flight (in actual or simulated instrument conditions), six instrument approaches, holding procedures and tasks, and which other task?

    • ASpin entry and recovery training with an authorized instructor
    • BThree takeoffs and landings to a full stop at night
    • CA flight review given by an authorized instructor
    • DIntercepting and tracking courses using navigational electronic systems
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D) Intercepting and tracking courses using navigational electronic systems

    IFR recency under 61.57(c)(1) means six instrument approaches, holding procedures and tasks, and intercepting and tracking courses using navigational electronic systems, all within the preceding 6 calendar months.

    • AIncorrect. Spin training is a flight instructor certificate requirement under 61.183. It is not part of instrument recency.
    • BIncorrect. This is the night passenger-carrying recency requirement in 61.57(b). It is not part of instrument experience.
    • CIncorrect. The flight review is a separate 24-calendar-month requirement under 61.56. It is not one of the 61.57(c) instrument tasks.
    • DCorrect. 61.57(c)(1)(iii) lists intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigational electronic systems, along with six approaches and holding procedures and tasks.
  3. Question 3 · 14 CFR, Endorsements and Pilot Qualifications

    Under 14 CFR 61.183, which knowledge tests must an applicant for an initial flight instructor certificate with an airplane rating normally pass?

    • AOnly the commercial pilot airplane knowledge test
    • BOnly the private pilot airplane knowledge test
    • CFundamentals of Instructing (FOI) and Flight Instructor Airplane
    • DOnly the instrument rating airplane knowledge test, if not yet passed
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C) Fundamentals of Instructing (FOI) and Flight Instructor Airplane

    A CFI-airplane applicant must pass the FOI knowledge test and the Flight Instructor Airplane knowledge test (61.183(e) and (f)). The FOI test is waived for current flight or ground instructors and for qualifying teachers.

    • AIncorrect. The applicant must already hold a commercial or ATP certificate, so that test was passed earlier. Section 61.183 requires separate instructor-level knowledge tests.
    • BIncorrect. A private pilot test is far below the level required. Section 61.183 requires the FOI test and the flight instructor aeronautical knowledge test.
    • CCorrect. Section 61.183(e) requires the FOI test and 61.183(f) requires the aeronautical knowledge test. The FOI test is waived for holders of a flight or ground instructor certificate, for state-certified teachers of 7th grade or higher, and for teachers employed at an accredited college or university.
    • DIncorrect. An instrument rating is a prerequisite for a CFI-airplane applicant (61.183(c)), but it does not replace the FOI and flight instructor knowledge tests.
  4. Question 4 · Human Factors and Risk Management

    A CFI is helping a newly certificated private pilot build a personal minimums checklist. According to FAA guidance, when should the pilot set or revise these minimums?

    • AAhead of time, on the ground, when not under pressure to fly a particular trip
    • BDuring preflight planning for each trip, adjusted to fit that day's forecast weather
    • CIn flight, as conditions develop, so the limits match the situation actually encountered
    • DAfter each flight review, set equal to the VFR weather minimums in 14 CFR part 91
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Ahead of time, on the ground, when not under pressure to fly a particular trip

    Personal minimums are set in advance, when the pilot is not under pressure, as a buffer above regulatory minimums. They should never be lowered for a specific flight.

    • ACorrect. FAA guidance says to consider changes to personal minimums when you are not under pressure to fly and have time to judge your skill and comfort level honestly. Then the go/no-go decision is already made before pressure builds.
    • BIncorrect. FAA guidance says never to lower personal minimums for a specific flight. Fitting them to the day's forecast invites external pressure to bend the limits.
    • CIncorrect. Changing limits in flight defeats their purpose. They exist so that decisions are made in advance, not under the stress of changing conditions.
    • DIncorrect. Personal minimums should give a safety buffer above regulatory minimums, based on the pilot's training, experience and proficiency. Setting them equal to the regulations removes that buffer.
  5. Question 5 · Human Factors and Risk Management

    A learner tenses up and over-controls the first time steep turns are introduced. What should the instructor do to reduce the learner's anxiety and support learning?

    • APostpone steep turns until the learner says the anxiety has gone away
    • BBreak the maneuver into stages, demonstrate each, then let the learner practice them
    • CHave the learner fly repeated full-bank turns until the tense reaction fades
    • DFocus the debrief on each error so the learner knows exactly what went wrong
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B) Break the maneuver into stages, demonstrate each, then let the learner practice them

    Anxiety narrows a learner's attention to the fear response. The instructor reduces it by breaking the maneuver into manageable stages, demonstrating each, and letting the learner practice until comfort and confidence build.

    • AIncorrect. Avoiding the maneuver doesn't let the learner build the comfort that reduces anxiety. The anxiety is likely to return when the maneuver comes back.
    • BCorrect. The Aviation Instructor's Handbook recommends taking the procedure apart, demonstrating each stage, and letting the learner practice the stages. This builds the comfort and confidence that reduce anxiety.
    • CIncorrect. Repeated exposure at full intensity keeps an anxious learner focused on the 'fight or flight' response instead of the skill being taught.
    • DIncorrect. A debrief that only lists errors adds to insecurity. Anxious learners do better when expectations are clear and progress is reinforced.
  6. Question 6 · Principles of Flight

    Which way do wingtip vortices rotate?

    • AOnly downward, with no outward motion
    • BInward toward the fuselage, from top to bottom
    • CStraight back with no rotation
    • DOutward, upward and around the wingtip
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D) Outward, upward and around the wingtip

    • AIncorrect. They rotate around the tip.
    • BIncorrect. They flow outward around the tip.
    • CIncorrect. They rotate.
    • DCorrect. They form as high-pressure air flows to the low-pressure side.
  7. Question 7 · Principles of Flight

    A CFI tells a student to slow to maneuvering speed (VA) or below when moderate or severe turbulence is encountered. What is the aerodynamic reason for this procedure?

    • AIt raises the wing's critical angle of attack, so gusts are less likely to stall the wing
    • BA sharp gust will stall the wing before the resulting load factor can exceed the structural limit
    • CIt lowers the airplane's stall speed, giving a larger safety margin above the stall
    • DIt increases the limit load factor the airframe is certificated to withstand
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B) A sharp gust will stall the wing before the resulting load factor can exceed the structural limit

    At or below maneuvering speed, a strong gust will stall the wing before it can overstress the airframe, so the FAA recommends VA or less in rough air to minimize structural stress.

    • AIncorrect. The critical angle of attack for a given wing configuration does not change with airspeed. At lower speeds a gust is actually more likely to stall the wing, and that is the intended protection.
    • BCorrect. At or below VA, a gust that sharply increases angle of attack stalls the wing before load factor reaches the limit, which relieves the load. Above VA, structural damage can occur before the wing stalls.
    • CIncorrect. Slowing down does not lower stall speed, which depends on weight, configuration and load factor. Slowing to VA actually reduces the margin above the stall, so the airspeed should stay well above stall speed but below VA.
    • DIncorrect. The limit load factor is set by the airplane's design and certification category and does not change with airspeed. Slowing down limits how much load a gust can impose; it does not raise the airframe's strength.
  8. Question 8 · Systems and High-Altitude Operations

    How does applying carburetor heat affect the fuel-air mixture?

    • AIt shuts off fuel flow
    • BIt makes the mixture leaner
    • CIt has no effect on the mixture
    • DIt makes the mixture richer
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D) It makes the mixture richer

    • AIncorrect. Fuel still flows.
    • BIncorrect. Warm air enriches the mixture.
    • CIncorrect. Air density changes the ratio.
    • DCorrect. Warm air is less dense.
  9. Question 9 · Performance and Limitations

    Wind 300° at 20 kt, runway 33. The crosswind component is about:

    • A17 knots
    • B10 knots
    • C20 knots
    • D5 knots
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B) 10 knots

    • AIncorrect. That's the headwind.
    • BCorrect. sin 30° × 20.
    • CIncorrect. That's at 90°.
    • DIncorrect. Recheck the angle.
  10. Question 10 · Performance and Limitations

    How does true airspeed compare with indicated airspeed as altitude increases?

    • ATrue airspeed becomes higher than indicated
    • BTrue airspeed becomes lower than indicated
    • CThey're always the same
    • DIndicated airspeed rises faster
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) True airspeed becomes higher than indicated

    • ACorrect. Thinner air lowers the indication.
    • BIncorrect. TAS rises with altitude.
    • CIncorrect. They differ with air density.
    • DIncorrect. IAS falls relative to TAS.
  11. Question 11 · Airspace, Navigation and Flight Planning

    While planning a VFR cross-country, a student says there is no need to check for temporary flight restrictions (TFRs) because the current sectional chart shows none along the route. What is the best instructor response?

    • ATFRs are issued by NOTAM, often on short notice, so the student must check current NOTAMs before the flight
    • BThe sectional is the controlling source; a TFR issued by NOTAM is advisory until it appears on the next chart edition
    • CTFRs mainly restrict IFR traffic in controlled airspace, so a VFR flight below 10,000 feet MSL is normally unaffected
    • DChecking for TFRs is required only if the planned route passes through or near Class B or Class C airspace
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) TFRs are issued by NOTAM, often on short notice, so the student must check current NOTAMs before the flight

    TFRs are designated by NOTAM, often on short notice, and printed charts do not show them. Under 91.103, a pilot must check current NOTAMs and TFRs before every flight.

    • ACorrect. Under 14 CFR 91.137, the FAA designates TFR areas by NOTAM, and new ones can appear after a chart is printed. Under 91.103, the PIC must become familiar with all available information before the flight, and that includes current TFRs.
    • BIncorrect. A TFR is binding once its NOTAM takes effect. Printed sectionals do not show these temporary restrictions.
    • CIncorrect. TFRs restrict operations within the designated area as the NOTAM specifies, and they apply to VFR flights too. Many TFRs, such as disaster or VIP areas, reach down to the surface.
    • DIncorrect. A TFR can be issued for any area, including Class E and Class G airspace. Checking for TFRs is part of becoming familiar with all available information for every flight.
  12. Question 12 · Airspace, Navigation and Flight Planning

    Class E airspace that begins at 700 ft AGL is shown on sectionals by:

    • AA solid magenta line
    • BA solid blue line
    • CA dashed blue line
    • DA faded magenta band
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D) A faded magenta band

    • AIncorrect. That's Class C.
    • BIncorrect. That's Class B.
    • CIncorrect. That's Class D.
    • DCorrect. Blue faded bands show 1,200 ft AGL.
  13. Question 13 · Weather Information

    Which statement correctly describes a Center Weather Advisory (CWA)?

    • AAn unscheduled nowcast issued by an ARTCC's Center Weather Service Unit, valid for up to 2 hours
    • BA scheduled flight-planning forecast issued every 6 hours that covers conditions up to 12 hours ahead
    • CA convective outlook prepared for flight planning that covers expected thunderstorm activity over 24 hours
    • DAn advisory issued only after conditions exceed SIGMET criteria, valid for up to 4 hours after issuance
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) An unscheduled nowcast issued by an ARTCC's Center Weather Service Unit, valid for up to 2 hours

    A CWA is an unscheduled, short-term advisory (a nowcast) issued by the ARTCC's CWSU for conditions that meet or approach in-flight advisory criteria. It is valid for up to 2 hours and is not meant for flight planning.

    • ACorrect. CWSU meteorologists issue unscheduled CWAs for their ARTCC. A CWA is valid for up to 2 hours and is generally a nowcast for conditions starting within 2 hours.
    • BIncorrect. CWAs are unscheduled, and because of their short lead time they are not flight-planning products.
    • CIncorrect. A CWA is a short-term advisory valid for up to 2 hours, not a long-range outlook.
    • DIncorrect. A CWA may also be issued when conditions don't meet SIGMET or AIRMET criteria but are expected to affect safe air traffic flow, and it is valid for up to 2 hours.
  14. Question 14 · Teaching Flight Maneuvers

    During a short-field approach lesson, a student asks whether the training airplane may be forward-slipped with full flaps extended. What determines whether this is acceptable?

    • AThe limitations and operating instructions in that airplane's AFM/POH
    • BWhether the stall warning stays silent while the slip is established
    • CWhether a crosswind component is present on the landing runway
    • DWhether indicated airspeed stays below VFE throughout the slip
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) The limitations and operating instructions in that airplane's AFM/POH

    Whether you can slip with flaps extended depends on the airplane. Teach students to check the AFM/POH, because some manufacturers prohibit forward slips with flaps.

    • ACorrect. Some airplanes prohibit or limit slips with flaps extended, for example because of airflow effects on the tail. The Airplane Flying Handbook says not to slip with flaps if the manufacturer's operating instructions prohibit it.
    • BIncorrect. A silent stall warning does not authorize a configuration that the manufacturer prohibits. The decision rests on the AFM/POH.
    • CIncorrect. Wind decides whether a sideslip is needed for crosswind control. It does not decide whether slipping with flaps is permitted.
    • DIncorrect. VFE limits the airspeed for flap extension. Staying below it does not make a slip allowed in an airplane whose manufacturer prohibits slips with flaps.
  15. Question 15 · Emergency and Night Operations

    On a night training flight, your student sees another airplane at about the same altitude straight ahead. Its red position light is on the right side as seen from your cockpit, its green position light is on the left, and no white light is visible. How should you tell the student to interpret this?

    • AThe other airplane is flying away from you on roughly the same heading
    • BThe other airplane is approaching you roughly head-on
    • CThe other airplane is crossing your path from your left to your right
    • DThe other airplane is crossing your path from your right to your left
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B) The other airplane is approaching you roughly head-on

    Position lights are red on the left wingtip, green on the right, and white on the tail. Seeing red on your right and green on your left with no white light means the other airplane is coming toward you head-on.

    • AIncorrect. From behind, you would see the white tail light, with the red light on your left and the green light on your right.
    • BCorrect. Red is on the left wingtip and green on the right. If you see red on your right and green on your left, the airplane's nose is pointed toward you, and its tail light is out of view.
    • CIncorrect. An airplane crossing from left to right shows you its left side, so you would mainly see a single red light, not both wingtip lights.
    • DIncorrect. An airplane crossing from right to left shows you its right side, so you would mainly see a single green light.

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Original questions written from the official exam outline. Not affiliated with FAA; never copied from the real exam.