AAMA · CMA
CMA (AAMA) Medical Assistant practice questions with answers
15 free practice questions for the CMA (AAMA) Certified Medical Assistant Exam (CMA), spread across the exam's topics. Try each one, then open the answer to see why every option is right or wrong.
Question 1 · Clinical Workflow: Patient Intake and Discharge
A medical assistant is about to weigh an adult on a balance beam scale. Which step should be done before the patient steps on?
- AWith both weights at zero, confirm the beam balances at the midpoint
- BPreset the 50-lb weight to the weight recorded at the last visit
- CLet the patient keep shoes and coat on and subtract 3 lb afterward
- DRely on the annual service calibration and skip the check at each use
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A) With both weights at zero, confirm the beam balances at the midpoint
Before each weighing, set both beam weights to zero and confirm the beam balances. Have the patient remove shoes and heavy clothing so the weight is accurate.
- ACorrect. With nothing on the platform and both sliding weights at zero, the beam should balance level. If it doesn't, adjust the counterweight first. An unbalanced scale makes every reading inaccurate.
- BIncorrect. The weights should start at zero. Presetting them skips the zero check and can bias the reading toward the earlier value.
- CIncorrect. Patients should remove shoes and heavy outer clothing. Subtracting an estimated amount is guesswork, not an accurate measurement.
- DIncorrect. Regular maintenance helps, but beam scales can drift, so the zero balance should be checked before each patient is weighed.
Question 2 · Clinical Workflow: Patient Intake and Discharge
Which test is most commonly used to screen patients for osteoporosis?
- ADual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) bone density scan
- BSerum calcium blood test
- CStandard two-view chest x-ray
- DRoutine urinalysis with microscopy
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A) Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) bone density scan
A DEXA bone density scan measures bone mineral content and is the standard test for screening and diagnosing osteoporosis. Blood tests such as calcium or vitamin D may be added later to confirm a diagnosis or monitor treatment.
- ACorrect. A DEXA scan is a low-dose x-ray that measures calcium and other minerals in bone. It is used to diagnose osteoporosis and is recommended for screening women 65 and older and people at higher risk.
- BIncorrect. A provider may order a calcium blood test after a bone density scan to help confirm a diagnosis or check treatment. It does not measure bone density, so it is not the screening test.
- CIncorrect. A chest x-ray looks at the heart and lungs. It does not measure bone mineral density, so it cannot screen for low bone mass.
- DIncorrect. A urinalysis checks urine for signs of kidney, urinary tract, and metabolic conditions. It does not measure bone mineral density.
Question 3 · Clinical Workflow: Patient Intake and Discharge
In SOAP documentation, the 'S' contains:
- AMeasured vital signs
- BWhat the patient reports
- CThe provider's diagnosis
- DThe treatment plan
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B) What the patient reports
- AIncorrect. These are objective.
- BCorrect. Subjective data are the patient's own statements.
- CIncorrect. That is the assessment.
- DIncorrect. That is the plan.
Question 4 · Safety and Infection Control
According to CDC guidance, standard precautions are based on treating which of the following as potentially infectious?
- ABlood, body fluids, secretions, and excretions except sweat, from every patient
- BBlood and body fluids from patients with a known or suspected bloodborne infection
- CBlood only, from every patient, with other body fluids handled under transmission-based precautions
- DBlood, body fluids, and sweat from patients placed on isolation precautions
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A) Blood, body fluids, secretions, and excretions except sweat, from every patient
CDC standard precautions assume that all blood, body fluids, secretions, and excretions (except sweat), nonintact skin, and mucous membranes may be infectious, and they apply to all patients regardless of infection status.
- ACorrect. The CDC states that all blood, body fluids, secretions, excretions except sweat, nonintact skin, and mucous membranes may contain transmissible agents. Standard precautions apply to all patients regardless of suspected or confirmed infection status.
- BIncorrect. Standard precautions apply to every patient, not only to patients whose infection status is known or suspected.
- CIncorrect. Standard precautions cover body fluids, secretions, and excretions as well as blood. Transmission-based precautions are an added layer for specific infections and do not replace standard precautions.
- DIncorrect. Sweat is the stated exception, and standard precautions are not limited to patients on isolation; they apply to all patients.
Question 5 · Safety and Infection Control
A patient shows confusion, hot dry skin and a very high temperature after working outdoors. This suggests:
- AHypothermia
- BMild dehydration
- CHeat stroke
- DA sprain
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C) Heat stroke
- AIncorrect. That is low body temperature.
- BIncorrect. These signs are severe.
- CCorrect. Heat stroke is an emergency; call 911 and cool the patient.
- DIncorrect. This is unrelated.
Question 6 · Procedures/Examinations
An adult patient's fasting blood glucose (taken after an overnight fast) is 112 mg/dL. Based on CDC fasting blood sugar ranges, how is this result classified?
- ANormal fasting blood sugar
- BPrediabetes range
- CDiabetes range
- DHypoglycemia range
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B) Prediabetes range
CDC fasting blood sugar ranges are 99 mg/dL or below for normal, 100–125 mg/dL for prediabetes, and 126 mg/dL or above for diabetes. A result of 112 mg/dL is therefore in the prediabetes range.
- AIncorrect. CDC classifies a fasting result of 99 mg/dL or below as normal, and 112 mg/dL is above that.
- BCorrect. CDC places fasting blood sugar of 100–125 mg/dL in the prediabetes range, and 112 mg/dL falls within it.
- CIncorrect. CDC's diabetes threshold for fasting blood sugar is 126 mg/dL or above, which 112 mg/dL does not reach.
- DIncorrect. Hypoglycemia means low blood glucose, below the normal range. 112 mg/dL is above normal, not below it.
Question 7 · Procedures/Examinations
An adult patient's CBC shows a platelet count of 95,000 per microliter. Using standard adult reference values, how should a medical assistant understand this result?
- AIt is within the normal adult range for platelets
- BIt is below normal, consistent with thrombocytopenia
- CIt is above normal, consistent with thrombocytosis
- DIt is a normal value for a white blood cell count
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B) It is below normal, consistent with thrombocytopenia
Normal adult platelets run about 150,000–400,000 per microliter. A count of 95,000 is low (thrombocytopenia), which can raise bleeding risk.
- AIncorrect. The normal adult platelet count is about 150,000 to 400,000 per microliter, so 95,000 is below normal.
- BCorrect. A count below 150,000 per microliter is low (thrombocytopenia). Bleeding risk rises further if the count falls below 50,000.
- CIncorrect. Thrombocytosis means a count of 400,000 or more per microliter, which can raise the risk of clotting. 95,000 is low, not high.
- DIncorrect. The value is a platelet count, not a white blood cell count. White blood cell counts run in the thousands per microliter, so 95,000 would be far too high for a WBC anyway.
Question 8 · Procedures/Examinations
Healthy ostomy stoma tissue normally looks:
- ADry and black
- BMoist and pink
- CPale white
- DBlue-purple
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B) Moist and pink
- AIncorrect. This suggests poor blood supply.
- BCorrect. A healthy stoma is moist and pink to red.
- CIncorrect. This suggests poor blood supply.
- DIncorrect. This suggests poor circulation.
Question 9 · Pharmacology
Which sign after an injection suggests anaphylaxis?
- AFeeling sleepy
- BMild site soreness
- CSlight redness only
- DTrouble breathing
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D) Trouble breathing
- AIncorrect. This is not typical of anaphylaxis.
- BIncorrect. This is a common minor reaction.
- CIncorrect. This is usually minor.
- DCorrect. Airway swelling, wheezing and hives signal anaphylaxis; act immediately.
Question 10 · Pharmacology
An expected but unwanted effect of a drug, like drowsiness from an antihistamine, is a:
- ASide effect
- BContraindication
- CIndication
- DAllergy
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A) Side effect
- ACorrect. Side effects are predictable secondary effects.
- BIncorrect. That is a reason not to give a drug.
- CIncorrect. That is a reason to give a drug.
- DIncorrect. That is an immune reaction.
Question 11 · Legal and Ethical Issues
What does an expert witness do in a malpractice case?
- AExplains the standard of care
- BDecides the verdict
- CRepresents the patient as a lawyer
- DCollects the patient's bills
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A) Explains the standard of care
- ACorrect. They have specialized knowledge.
- BIncorrect. The jury or judge decides.
- CIncorrect. That's an attorney.
- DIncorrect. That isn't their role.
Question 12 · Legal and Ethical Issues
Under HIPAA, how soon must a practice usually respond to a patient's request for records?
- ANever; records belong to the practice
- BWithin 1 year
- CWithin 1 hour
- DWithin 30 days
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D) Within 30 days
- AIncorrect. Patients have a right of access.
- BIncorrect. That's too long.
- CIncorrect. That's not required.
- DCorrect. One 30-day extension may be allowed.
Question 13 · Communication
A patient calls the office asking for a refill of a maintenance medication. Which set of information should the medical assistant record before sending the request to the provider?
- APatient's full name, date of birth, medication name and strength, and preferred pharmacy
- BPatient's full name, home address, insurance plan name, and preferred pharmacy
- CPatient's date of birth, medication name, original prescription date, and employer
- DPatient's full name, medication name, copay amount, and emergency contact
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A) Patient's full name, date of birth, medication name and strength, and preferred pharmacy
A refill request needs enough detail to identify the right patient (name and date of birth), the exact medication and strength, and the pharmacy that should receive the approved refill, so the provider can review it against the chart.
- ACorrect. Name and date of birth identify the right patient and chart. The drug name and strength tell the provider exactly what is being requested, and the pharmacy tells the office where to send an approved refill.
- BIncorrect. The provider can't review the request without knowing which medication and strength the patient wants.
- CIncorrect. It leaves out the patient's name, the dose, and the pharmacy. The patient's employer has nothing to do with a refill.
- DIncorrect. It has no second identifier such as date of birth, and no strength or pharmacy. The copay and emergency contact aren't needed for a refill request.
Question 14 · Billing, Coding, and Insurance
Since 2021, how is the level of an office/outpatient evaluation and management (E/M) visit selected?
- ABy the extent of the history and physical exam documented in the note
- BBy the total time the patient spends in the office, including waiting
- CBy the number of diagnosis codes reported on the claim
- DBy medical decision making or the practitioner's total time on the visit date
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D) By medical decision making or the practitioner's total time on the visit date
Since 2021, the office/outpatient E/M level is based on medical decision making or the practitioner's total time on the date of service. History and exam are done as medically appropriate but no longer set the level.
- AIncorrect. This was the method before 2021. CMS now states that history and exam no longer affect visit level selection; they are performed only as medically appropriate.
- BIncorrect. Time-based selection counts the time the physician or NPP spends on the patient's care that day. Time the patient spends waiting does not count.
- CIncorrect. The number of problems addressed is one factor within medical decision making, but simply counting the diagnosis codes on the claim does not set the visit level.
- DCorrect. Practitioners choose the office/outpatient E/M level based on the level of medical decision making or the total time the physician or NPP spends on the date of the encounter.
Question 15 · Schedule Appointments and Health Information Management
A provider orders an outpatient fasting lipid panel for a patient. Which instruction should the medical assistant give the patient?
- AStop taking all daily medicines the day before the blood draw
- BHave only black coffee or juice on the morning of the test
- CEat a large meal right before the test to avoid feeling faint
- DHave nothing to eat or drink except water for the specified hours
Show answer and explanation
Answer: D) Have nothing to eat or drink except water for the specified hours
For outpatient lab orders, the medical assistant gives the patient preparation instructions. For a fasting test, that means only water for the ordered period while continuing medicines unless the provider says otherwise.
- AIncorrect. Patients should not stop prescribed medicines before a lab test unless their provider specifically tells them to.
- BIncorrect. Fasting usually means nothing to eat or drink except water. Coffee and juice can affect the results.
- CIncorrect. Eating before a fasting test changes lipid values, especially triglycerides, and makes the results unreliable.
- DCorrect. For a fasting test, the patient has only water for the ordered period, often overnight. The medical assistant should also explain where to go and how long to fast.
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Original questions written from the official exam outline. Not affiliated with AAMA; never copied from the real exam.